Practice Test

1) Who is the current CEO of the NITI Aayog?

2) Which of the following statement is correct about the NITI Aayog?

3) When was NITI Aayog established?

4) NITI Aayog came into existence in the place of

5) NITI Aayog has signed pact with which company for deploying AI tools in agriculture & healthcare.

6) Who was appointed as the second Vice-Chair Person of NITI Aayog?

7) NITI Aayog, by the year 2030 targets to eradicate ________ for all people every where in India.

8) The Human Development Index is a composite index encompassing three are dimensions of human development.

9) When did NITI Aayog come in to existence?

10) Which programme was launched to prevent child trafficking and rescue children from persons who try to engage them in begging, sexual trade and antisocial activities?

11) Which of the following mentioned portals & sub- programmes were created under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?

12) Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayats:
1. Each such panchayat brings together about a hundred women LPG customers on an interactive platform to discuss about safe and sustainable usage of LPG.
2. One lakh such panchayats will be conducted across India before 31st March 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

13) The 'Startup India Yatra' is an initiative that is related to

14) Consider the following statements about Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana:
1. It targets reducing the aggregate losses from power theft to 15% by 2019.
2. An envisaged impact of the scheme is increased demand for power.
3.The Central Government will not include the discom debt taken over by States as per the above scheme in the calculation of fiscal deficit of respective States for the financial years 2015-16 to 2019-20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

15) What does 'S' stand for in SATH, an initiative by government of India to initiate transformation in Health and Education Sectors by associating with states?

16) What does "G" stand for in GOBAR Dhan Yojana which is an ambitious scheme of the government of India to manage and convert cattle dung and solid waste from farms and fields to useful compost and biogas?

17) Which of the following Cities is not one of the list of HRIDAY Scheme which is aimed at preserving and developing Cities of Heritage Importance in the country?

18) What is the name of the web portal developed by the National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA) to enable schools to evaluate their performance in 7 key domains under the prescribed framework?

19) GIAN is an initiative aimed at tapping the talent pool of scientist and entrepreneurs internationally by collaborating Indian institutes of Higher Education in India with Foreign academics. What is "I" stands for GIAN?

20) What is the full form of the SWAYAM - an indigenous IT platform for hosting the Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs)?

21) Which programme was launched, on the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, with the objective of promoting greater mutual understanding amongst States & UTS?

22) Which campaign is launched to make nationwide efforts to strengthen Panchayati Raj and through it, boost social harmony in the villages, promote rural development and foster farmers' welfare & livelihoods of the poor?

23) Swachh yug campaign involves intensifying support to how many States to make all villages along the banks of the Ganga, Open Defecation Free (ODF)?

24) Jal Marg Vikas project of Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), plans to reach LNG (liquefied natural gas) to Nepal via _________ in UP?

25) Under Swachh Swasth Sarvatra , financial assistance of __________rupees will be given to the community health centres so that they can be strengthened to meet the standards of sanitation, hygiene and infection control?

26) Which campaign was launched by NITI Aayog under which students from Class 6th to Class 12th will learn innovation skills and develop ideas that will go on to transform India at Atal Tinkering Labs?

27) NITI Aayog has launched which program to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors with the State Governments?

28) Ministry of Women and Child Development and the Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) have developed a website to exchange information on missing and found children. What is the name of the website?

29) What is the name of an electronic platform for no child labour developed by the Labour Ministry?

30) What is the name of the platform that is launched to enable women employees to file complaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace?

31) Former world number one Angelique Kerber defeated Serena Williams in the women's singles final to clinch her first-ever Wimbledon title. Angelique Kerber hails from ______________.

32) The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has constituted a 10 Member Committee for review of the penal provisions in the Companies Act, 2013. The committee will be headed by ____________.

33) The Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid done the foundation stone of important projects, cumulatively worth over _____________ in Varanasi.

34) Name the country that has recently become the Vice-Chair (Regional Head) of the Asia Pacific Region of World Customs Organisation (WCO) for a period of two years.

35) Name the country with which India signed a revised travel agreement to ease visa restrictions for citizens from the neighboring country.

36) In which of the following city, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated the Bansagar Canal Project to the Nation?

37) In the Wimbledon Championships 2018, Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the men's singles Title for the fourth time. He defeated _____________ in the finals.

38) The 21st edition of the FIFA World Cup concluded in Luzhniki Stadium in the Russian capital of Moscow. France emerged as the champion team of the FIFA World Cup 2018. It has defeated ____________.

39) In which of the following country, the External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj co-chaired the second joint commission meeting with her counterpart Shaikh Khalid Bin Ahmed Bin Mohamed Al Khalifa?

40) The World Customs Organization (WCO) headquarters in __________.

41) In the Wimbledon Championships 2018, Angelique Kerber of Germany won in Women's singles. She defeated ___________.

42) India's supersonic cruise missile (SCM) BrahMos was test fired from Odisha's Chandipur range launch pad under extreme conditions. The test was conducted in order to increase ______________.

43) Name the country in which the US President Donald Trump and his Russian counterpart Vladimir Putin held the first summit.

44) Name the Union Minister for electronics and IT and law and justice who has unveiled the Goa IT Policy 2018 at the Inox complex in Panaji on the final day of Goa IT Day celebrations.

45) The 2018 Wimbledon Championships is a Grand Slam tennis tournament which takes place at the All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in Wimbledon, London, United Kingdom. The 2018 tournament was the ______________ edition of the Championships.

46) The University of Houston, Texas has signed an MoU with the Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy (IIPE) to build scientific and technical knowledge through joint research. IIPE was established in 2016 in _____________.

47) The Indian team won four silver medals and five bronzes at the 7th World Junior Wushu Championships. The Championship was held in ________________.

48) Bhushan Steel has approved the appointment of ___________ as Chairman and Non-Executive Additional Director of the company.

49) In which of the following state, the first of world's cheapest drinking water project was launched?

50) Indian boxers ruled the ring at the 36th Golden Glove of Vojvodina youth tournament, ending with seven gold medals to claim the overall top spot in the event. This tournament was held in which of the following country?

51) The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established in _________.

52) SEBI was primarily set up to

53) The prime objective of the SEBI Act,1992 is to protect the interests of

54) The Board consists of

55) The central government does not have the right to terminate the services of

56) The Chairman and other members shall have the right to relinquish office at any time before the expiry of their tenure by giving a notice of in writing to the Central Government.

57) The Chairman and Whole time Members may hold office for a period of three years

58) The Central Government shall have the power to remove a member or the Chairman appointed to the Board, if he has been convicted of an offence which in the opinion of the Central Government, does not involve a moral turpitude.

59) The Board can call for furnishing information to, other authorities, in the matters relating to the prevention or detection of violations in respect of securities laws without the prior approval of the central government

60) The Board provides for measures for

61) The Board may take measures to undertake inspection of any book, or register, or other document or record of

62) The Board can pass on order

63) The amount disgorged, pursuant to a direction issued shall be credited to

64) The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 had given certain powers to

65) It shall be open to SEBI to inspect at all reasonable times books of accounts and other documents to be maintained by the Stock Exchanges for periods

66) SEBI may make bye-laws on matters specified in Section 9 of SCRA or amend any bye-laws made by a stock exchange on

67) To be a collective investment scheme,

68) An insurance scheme is a collective investment scheme.

69) Schemes under which contributions made are in the nature of subscription to a mutual fund are not a collective investment scheme.

70) It shall be the duty of to produce to the Investigating Authority or any person authorised by it in this behalf all related documents:

71) The Investigating Authority may keep in its custody any books, registers, other documents and record produced for six months:

72) If any person fails without reasonable cause or refuses to produce to the Investigating Authority any record, he shall be punished with:

73) Notes taken by the examiner and not signed by the person examined can be used as evidence.

74) The Investigating Authority may make an application to the Magistrate or Judge of such designated court in Mumbai, as may be notified by the _________for an order for the seizure.

75) The Magistrate or Judge of the Designated Court shall not authorise seizure of books, registers, other documents and record, of

76) The Impounded documents will remain in the custody of _________.

77) A _________ is authorized to buy, sell or deal in securities.

78) Nobody shall directly or indirectly acquire control of any company or securities more than the percentage of equity share capital of a company whose securities are listed or proposed to be listed on a recognised stock exchange

79) _________ should be credited to Securities and Exchange Board of India General Fund.

80) What is the Full Form of ALM?

81) The Legal Entity Identifier is a ______ code developed by the International Organization for Standardization.

82) QFI scheme was introduced by the government in consultation with RBI and SEBI. In QFI, "I" represents ________.

83) The Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies has introduced under which section of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?

84) The interest rates on banks contribution to Rural Infrastructure Development Fund should be fixed by ________.

85) An account of a bank holds with another bank in a foreign country in the foreign currency is known as ________.

86) MIBID is used to be calculated every day by which of the following organizations?

87) Which of the following accounts can be held in the form of current account only?

88) What is the maximum limit of Foreign Direct Investment in Private banks under the automatic route?

89) AU Small Finance Bank is headquartered in ______.

90) ________is a fixed amount that is received or paid at regular intervals for a specified period.

91) Which of the following small finance bank of India recently proposed issuing shares of the bank to its shareholders without cash consideration?

92) The Nainital bank is a subsidiary of ____________.

93) Which of the following is not the function of General Insurance?

94) What is the minimum Capital Adequacy ratio to be maintained by small finance banks in India?

95) There are basically _____ principles that govern the insurance.

96) Insurance regulator IRDAI formed a working group to revisit norms on trade credit insurance. Where is the headquarters of IRDAI situated?

97) FRA is a contract between parties that determines the rate of interest to be paid. In FRA, 'F' denotes ______.

98) Computer Emergency Response Team, India comes under _______.

99) IDBI Bank announced its decision to launch co-branded credit card with which of the following organisation?

100) The central banking institution of India?

101) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on?

102) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was nationalized on?

103) Which of the following acts govern the RBI functions?

104) Which of the following formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy?

105) Headquarters of Reserve Bank of India is in?

106) The first Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 1 April 1935 to 30 June 1937?

107) 22nd and Current Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

108) Which of the following rates is not decided by RBI?

109) The Reserve Bank of India was set up on the recommendations of the?

110) The stance of RBI monetary policy is?

111) The National Housing Bank (NHB) is wholly owned by?

112) The Reserve Bank of India had divested its stake in State Bank of India to?

113) At Present the RBI holds one per cent of shareholding in?

114) The current deputy governors in RBI?

115) Which of the following pairings is wrong? (Country & Central Bank)

116) Which of the following pairings is wrong? (As per current rates)

117) Which of the following international organizations serve as a bank for central Banks?

118) Who has the sole right to issue paper currency in India?

119) Which among the following is Oldest in Age?

120) What is the eligibility for the resolution professional:

121) In which form is the public announcement by the interim resolution professional required to be made:

122) When is the public announcement required to be made:

123) What is the last date for submission of proof of claims:

124) Who shall originally bear the expenses of the public announcement:

125) In which form shall an operational creditor submit proof of claim to the interim resolution professional:

126) In which form shall a financial creditor submit proof of claim to the interim resolution professional:

127) In which form shall an authorised representative submit the dues to numerous workmen or employees:

128) What can a creditor do if he failed to submit proof of claim within the time stipulated in the public announcement:

129) What is the time frame for verifying claims of creditors by the resolution professional:

130) Who shall determine the amount of claim due to a creditor:

131) What shall be the date of valuation in case of debt in foreign currency:

132) In case of committee with only operational creditors, the committee shall consist of:

133) When shall the interim resolution professional file a report certifying the constitution of the committee of creditors to the Adjudicating Authority:

134) What is the time limit within which the first meeting of the committee of creditors be held:

135) Who can make a request to convene a meeting of the committee of creditors:

136) Upto what duration can the notice period for calling the meeting of the committee of creditors be reduced:

137) What is quorum in case of meeting of committee of creditors:

138) Which of the following statements relating to video conferencing with regard to due and reasonable care to be taken by the resolution professional is not correct:

139) When shall the resolution professional circulate the minutes of the meeting to all participants:

140) Who shall constitute National Company Law Tribunal?

141) What is the composition of National Company Law Tribunal?

142) Who is eligible to become the President of National Company Law Tribunal?

143) What is the required qualification of Judicial member of National Company Law Tribunal?

144) Mr. Vinod has been a member of the Indian Corporate Law Service for 6 years. Comment on his eligibility for appointment as a technical member of National Company Law Tribunal.

145) Mr. Albert has been holding the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt, of India. Comment on his eligibility for appointment as a member of National Company Law Tribunal.

146) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Technical Member of NCLT unless he is a person of proven ability, integrity and standing having special knowledge and professional experience of not less than ..................... , in industrial finance, industrial management, industrial reconstruction, investment and accountancy.

147) Which of the following person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Technical Member of NCLT?

148) Who shall constitute National Company Law Appellate Tribunal?

149) What is the composition of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal?

150) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal is constituted for hearing appeals against:
(i) the orders of the Tribunal.
(ii) the orders of the National Financial Reporting Authority under Companies Act, 2013.
(iii) any direction, decision or order referred to in Sec. 53N of Competition Act, 2002 in accordance with the provisions of that Act.
Choose the correct one.

151) The chairperson of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal shall be a person:
(i) who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(ii) who is or has been a Chief Justice of a High Court.
(iii) who is or has been a Judge of a High Court for 5 years.
Choose the correct one.

152) The Judicial member of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal shall be a person:
(i) who is or has been a Judge of a High Court.
(ii) who is or has been a District Judge for at-least 5 years.
(iii) is a Judicial Member of the Tribunal for 5 years.
Choose the correct one.

153) A person shall be qualified for appointment as a Technical Member of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal if he

154) Mr. RG is a practicing Chartered Accountant and having 15 years of professional experience. Is he eligible to be appointed as Technical Member of the National Company Law Tribunal and National Company Law Appellate Tribunal as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013?

155) How the President of NCLT and the Chairperson of NCLAT be appointed?

156) How the members of NCLT be appointed?

157) How the members of NCLAT be appointed?

158) Who shall be the Chairperson of the Selection Committee for the appointment of members of NCLT and NCLAT?

159) Who shall be the Convener of the Selection Committee for the appointment of members of NCLT and NCLAT?

160) Where in a meeting of the Selection Committee, there is equality of votes on any matter, who shall have a casting vote?

161) What is the term of holding office in case of the President and other Members of the NCLT?

162) What is the term of holding office in case of the Chairperson and other Members of the NCLAT?

163) Is there any restriction as to minimum age of the members of the NCLT and NCLAT?

164) What is the restriction as to age of members of N CLT?

165) What is the restriction as to age of members of NCLAT?

166) Mr. D was appointed as a Technical Member of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) on 1st July, 2016 for a period of 5 years. He will be completing 63 years on 30th June, 2021. Whether he can be reappointed on the NCLT on completion of his tenure in 2021?

167) Mr. X was appointed as a Chairperson of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) on 1st July, 2016 for a period of 5 years. He will be completing 63 years on 30th June, 2021. Whether he can be re-appointed on the NCLAT on completion of his tenure in 2021?

168) Mr. Z was appointed as a President of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) on 1st July, 2016 for a period of 5 years. He will be completing 63 years on 30th June, 2021. Whether he can be re-appointed on the NCLT on completion of his tenure in 2021?

169) In the event of the occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the President or the Chairperson by reason of his death, resignation or otherwise, ..................... shall act as the President or the Chairperson, as the case may be, until the date on which a new President or Chairperson appointed in accordance with the provisions of this Act to fill such vacancy enters upon his office.

170) Which of the following organisation/ministry has launched Vittiya Saksharata Abhiyan (VISAKA) scheme?

171) Khelo India is -
i) A National Programme for Development of Sports,which aims to enable a pathway from schools to Olympics.
ii) Each athlete selected under the new scheme will get a scholarship of Rs.80 lakh per annum for two years.
iii) Government also aims to set up 20 universities across the country as hubs of sporting excellence.
Choose the correct answer :-

172) National Rural Water Drinking Programme:-
i) By Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
ii) 2% earmarking of funds for Japanese Encephalitis(JE)/ Acute Encephalitis Syndrome(AES) affected areas.
iii) A central sector scheme.
Choose the correct answer:-

173) Mission Bhagiratha -

174) India's first healthcare and wellness centre under Ayushman Bharat Yojana was inaugurated in:-

175) The Ministry of communication has recently launched a Pan India Scholarship programme for school-children called 'Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana'. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of :-

176) Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

177) Which one of the following statements about 'Niryat Bandhu Scheme' is correct?

178) Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhaya Grameen Kaushalaya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

179) The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many states?

180) Which one the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?

181) Choose correct regarding Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyaan:
1. The scheme aims to strengthen the country's Panchayati Raj Day (14th April).
2. It has relation with SDGs.
3. It is for part IX (in the constitution) panchayat areas only.

182) Which mission was launched for conservation and development of indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner?

183) Which scheme was launched, to creat an ecosystem by promoting innovations, to foster Start Ups growth in India?

184) The Union Government has reduced the minimum annual deposit requirement for accounts under Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana from Rs 1000 to _______________.

185) With an aim to integrate information technology for better roll out of its major social sector schemes, Ministry of Woman and Child Development organized a day-long Seminar on Technology Partnerships for Steering POSHAN Abhiyaan called ______________.

186) The Odisha government decided to raise the health cover from Rs. 5 lakh to ___________ under Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY) for women.

187) According to Mr Raghvendra Singh, Secretary, Ministry of Culture, MoU/MoUs has/have been signed under 'Adopt a Heritage' scheme. The MoU/MoUs signed under this scheme is/are?

188) Union Minister of Coal, Railways, Finance & Corporate Affairs, Piyush Goyal launched the Coal Mine Surveillance & Management System (CMSMS) and Mobile Application named ___________ developed by CMPDI, Ranchi in New Delhi.

189) The Madhya Pradesh State Government launched an outstanding power bill waiver scheme and subsidised power scheme called _____________ for labourers and poor families.

190) Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani launched 'Poshan Abhiyan', a statewide mission to eradicate malnutrition among children and also launched 'PURNA' project to eliminate malnutrition among girls in the age group of 14 to 18. 'PURNA' stands for _________________.

191) Which of the following is not a pillar of recently launched 'Women Entrepreneurship Platform' (WEP) by NITI Aayog?

192) Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana is a scheme of agricultural marketing. It has been launched by which State government?

193) Choose the correct sequence of following Central Government Programmes based on the year of their launch in the chronological order -
1. Atal Pension Yojana.
2. Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana.
3. Integrated Child Development Services.
4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment guarantee Scheme.
5. Integrated Rural Development Programme.
Code:-

194) On July 24, 2018, to mark World Day against Trafficking in Persons on July 30, The Ministry of Women and Child Development launched a contest. What is the name of the contest?

195) On July 24, 2018, 3 states namely, UP, Jharkhand and Maharashtra launched the Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2018 (SSG 2018). SSG 2018 was announced by which Ministry on July 13th 2018?

196) On July 19, 2018, National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) organised 'Ganga Vriksharopan Abhiyan' in how many main stem Ganga basin states?

197) On July 22, 2018, The Environment Ministry re-introduced the 'Medini Puraskar Yojna' - a scheme that awards Indian authors for their original work in which language on environment, pollution and climate change subjects?

198) The 'Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage and Diverse Cultural Traditions of India' scheme is implemented by which Ministry?

199) Under the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, the government has cut the minimum annual deposit requirement for accounts to ____ from Rs 1,000 earlier?

200) Which state has been named first among states for its performance under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritav Abhiyan (PMSMA) in India?

201) On July 4, 2018, which state government announced Mukhyamantri Jan Kalyan (Sambal) Yojana 2018 (a scheme to provide subsidized power)?

202) On July 12, 2018, Niti Aayog has proposed 15-point action plan named "_____" for combating air pollution in ten most polluted cities in India?

203) On July 10, 2018, the Energy Minister of which state government announced that the state government will launch "one farmer one transformer" scheme for the farmers from August 2018?

204) Which of the following state government has announced a new scheme called 'Kanya Van Samruddhi Yojana', wherein farmer's families where girl children are born will be given saplings for plantation?

205) The Union Ministry of Culture introduced a new scheme called _____________ to reimburse the central share of CGST and IGST on items for food/prasad/langar/bhandara offered free of cost by charitable religious institutions.

206) On June 26, 2018, the Government proposed to set up how many Van Dhan Kendras involving 30,000 SHGs across India under the Van Dhan Scheme of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs?

207) On 25th June 2018, a campaign to encourage farmers to voluntarily adopt a new scheme 'Paani Bachao, Paise Kamao', for checking depletion of underground water, was launched in _____?

208) 'Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme' targets which of the following sectors?

209) The scheme 'Niryat Bandhu' aims at which of the following?

210) Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana:
1. It is conceived to arrest the rampant overuse of groundwater in India.
2. It is supported by the Word Bank.
3. It is a sub-scheme under National Groundwater Management Improvement Scheme (NGMIS).
Select the correct statements:

211) The Cabinet Secretary of India works under the direct charge of __________?

212) Who is the newly appointed Defence Secretary of India?

213) The National Conference on Varmam Science has recently held in which city?

214) 'Op-Blue Freedom' is associated to which sports?

215) How many island nations are members of Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation (FIPIC)?

216) Which Indian tech company has partnered with IISc on robotics and 5G?

217) Which state has acquired first position in the SARAL - 'State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index'?

218) 'Sea Tinkle' in Chennai beach , which is in news recently, is caused by which algae?

219) Which international organisation has released a report titled 'Quality Unknown: The Invisible Water Crisis'?

220) Where is the headquarters of the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network "TRAFFIC"?

221) The Fund shall be applied for

222) The Board shall maintain proper accounts and prepare an annual statement of accounts in such form as may be prescribed by

223) Any expenditure incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable by _________ to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

224) The accounts of the Board shall be forwarded annually to the Central Government by the CAG.

225) If any person, who is required under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder fails to _________ shall be liable to a penalty which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees for each day during which such failure continues subject to a maximum of one crore rupees.

226) If any listed company or any person who is registered as an intermediary fails to redress the grievances of investors in _________, they shall be liable to a penalty.

227) If a person registered as a stock broker fails to deliver any security, he is liable to a penalty of

228) Any insider shall be liable to a penalty of

229) An insider will not be penalized if he

230) The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall consist of _________ to exercise the powers and discharge the functions conferred.

231) Every Bench constituted shall include at least

232) A Bench may be constituted by the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal

233) The Benches of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall ordinarily sit at Mumbai

234) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Presiding Officer unless he is or has been

235) The Presiding Officer and Judicial Members of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be appointed by

236) A member or part time member of the Board shall not be appointed as Presiding Officer or Member of the Securities Appellate Tribunal -

237) The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall hold office for a term of

238) The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate Tribunal can hold office upto the age of

239) In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal _________ shall act as the Presiding Officer until the date on which a new Presiding Officer is appointed.

240) The Presiding Officer or any other Member shall continue to hold office until

241) The Presiding Officer and Member appointed before the commencement of Part XIV of Chapter VI of the Finance Act, 2017

242) The officers and employees of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall discharge their functions under general superintendence of

243) Any person aggrieved by an order _________ may prefer an appeal to a Securities Appellate Tribunal having jurisdiction in the matter.

244) Every appeal shall be filed within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order made is received by him

245) The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to

246) The appeal filed before the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be disposed finally within six months from the date of receipt of the appeal.

247) The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

248) The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall have, for the purposes of discharging their functions under this Act, the powers for

249) No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which an adjudicating officer appointed under this Act or a Securities Appellate Tribunal constituted under this Act is empowered by

250) Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the _________ within

251) Supreme Court may, if it is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding _________ days.

252) If at any time the Central Government is of opinion that Board unable to perform its functions, it may by notification, supersede the Board for such period, not exceeding six months.

253) The Board not being able to discharge its functions and duties on account of a grave emergency can be considered as a reason for the Central Government to supersede the Board

254) Upon the publication of a notification of superseding the Board all property owned or controlled by the Board shall, until the Board is reconstituted vest in the Central Government

255) In case of a supersession, any person or persons who vacated their offices, shall be deemed disqualified for appointment on reconstitution of the Board

256) The Board shall, within ninety days after the end of each financial year, submit to the Central Government a report in such form, as may be prescribed, giving a true and full account of its activities, policy and programmes during the previous financial year.

257) if any person contravenes or attempts to contravene or abets the contravention of the provisions of this Act or of any rules or regulations made thereunder, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term

258) No immunity shall be granted by the Central Government in cases where the proceedings for the prosecution for any such offence have been instituted after the date of receipt of application for grant of such immunity.

259) An immunity granted to a person above may, at any time, be withdrawn by the _________ if it is satisfied that such person had, in the course of the proceedings, not complied with the conditions on which immunity was granted.

260) The person who has not complied with the conditions may

261) A Special Court shall consist of a single judge who shall be appointed by the Central Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the

262) Where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company and it is proved that the offence has been committed with the neglect of any director of the company, such director shall also be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

263) The Recovery Officer shall proceed to recover from such person the amount specified in the certificate by

264) The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 lays down guidelines relating to

265) _________is when an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or an offer for sale of its existing securities to the public.

266) FPO is when a listed company which proposes to issue fresh securities to its existing shareholders as on a record date

267) A __________ is an issue of shares or of convertible securities by a company to a select group of persons.

268) An issuer may make an initial public offer, if

269) An unlisted company intending to be listed should have at least ________% of its net tangible assets held in monetary assets.

270) An unlisted company intending to be listed should have a minimum average pre-tax operating profit of rupees fifteen crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, during the

271) An issuer not satisfying the conditions may make an Initial Public Offer if the issue is made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot, at least of the net offer to public, to qualified institutional buyers.

272) An issuer cannot make an initial public offer of Convertible Debt Instruments without making a prior public issue of its equity shares and listing thereof

273) An issuer shall make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of prospective allottees is more than 1000.

274) For an IPO, ________

275) Any amendments to be made in the prospectus should be done within 21 days of filing the offer document.

276) Book Building is essentially a process used by companies raising capital through

277) ________ is a mechanism where, during the period for which the book for the offer is open, the bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are within the price band specified by the issuer.

278) The issue price is determined after the bid closure based on ________ under the book bulding issue.

279) Bids can be revised by the bidders before the book closes.

280) ________decide the final price at which the securities shall be issued, under the book building issue.

281) Issue size should not be

282) If the issue price is Rs. 500 or more then the Company may fix the face Value

283) If the issue price is less than Rs. 500 then the Company must have a face Value of Rs. 10 per share.

284) The promoter group includes

285) In case the promoter is an individual, _________ counts

286) _________ shall not be deemed to be a promoter merely by virtue of the fact that 10 % or more of the equity share capital of the issuer is held by such person.

287) In case of an FPO, the promoters minimum contribution should be

288) In case of a composite issue, the post-issue capital _________ the rights issue component for calculating the promoter's contribution.

289) Under lock-in period, shares are _________.

290) Locked-in shares cannot be pledged or transferred inter-se between promoters.

291) In case of an IPO, the entire pre-issue capital of an Unlisted Company subject to certain exceptions is locked in for

292) Is the listing of a company common shares on a different exchange than its primary and original stock exchange

293) Cross-listing gives issuing companies more liquidity and a greater ability to raise capital.

294) A listed issuer company cannot make any rights issue of securities, where the aggregate value of such securities, including premium, if any exceeds 50 lakhs unless a draft letter of offer has been filed with the board.

295) The draft letter must be filed within _________ Days prior to the filing of the letter of offer with the designated Stock Exchange.

296) If the issuer withdraws the rights issue after announcing the record date, it shall not make an application for listing of any of its specified securities on any recognized stock exchange for a period of ten months from the record date announced.

297) Bonus issue cannot be made out of

298) Bonus shares can be issued on partly paid up shares.

299) Before issuing bonus shares, it is to be ensured that the company hasnRs.t defaulted in

300) Issuer can issue of bonus shares in lieu of dividend

301) Issuer company cannot make preferential allotment to an person who has sold any equity shares during _________ months preceding relevant date.

302) For the preferential issue by listed Company, existing proposed allottees shall have shares in _________ form.

303) A company cannot make a preferential issue unless it has acquired PANs of Possible allottees.

304) Is considered as a QIB for a Qualified Institutional Placement

305) The Company shall pass a _______ resolution approving the qualified institutional placement by its shareholders.

306) The allotment of securities shall be completed within a period of 12 months from the date of passing of the resolution.

307) No single allottee shall be allotted more than 50% of the issue size in a QIP

308) The minimum number of allottees for each placement of eligible securities that has to be made under QIPs shall not be less than......., where the issue size is less than or equal to........ and ........ where the issue size is greater than

309) At the time of allotment under the QIPs, minimum 10% of the eligible securities shall be allotted to

310) The applicants in qualified institutional placement can withdraw their bids after the closure of the issue.

311) The aggregate of the proposed qualified institutional placement and all previous qualifies institutional placements made by the issuer in the same financial year shall not exceed 5 times the net worth

312) QIPs shall be made on the basis of a ........ which shall contain all material information.

313) The (final) placement document shall be serially numbered and copies shall be circulated only to

314) Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 applies only to companies

315) Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 regulations shall apply to the listed entity who has listed

316) A listed entity shall appoint a qualified Company Secretary as the Compliance Officer.

317) One Director on Board shall be a Director on Board of Unlisted Material Subsidiary.

318) A listed entity shall not dispose of shares in its material subsidiary resulting in reduction of its shareholding (either on its own or together with other subsidiaries) to less than 50 % or cease the exercise of control over the subsidiary without passing a

319) A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities

320) A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities Within 10 days of any capital restructuring of the listed entity resulting in a change exceeding percent of the total paid-up share capital

321) For declaration of dividend, Intimation shall be required to be made at least 2 working days in advance

322) The listed entity shall give intimation of Any alteration in the form or nature of any of its securities that are listed to the stock exchange(s) at least 11 working days before

323) A listed entity shall recommend or declare all dividend and/or cash bonuses At least working days (excluding the date of intimation and the record date) before the record date.

324) A listed entity shall update any change in the content of its website Within working days from the date of such change in content.

325) Listed entity shall submit audited standalone financial results for the financial year, along with the audit report and either Form A or Form B within days from end of Financial Year.

326) A listed entity shall submit the annual report to the stock exchange within 21 working days of it being

327) The role of a Compliance Officer is

328) Compliance Report is to besubmitted within 6 months from the end of financial year to the Board

329) Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee which consist of

330) Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee which consist of

331) The audit committee shall meet at least

332) At least ........ percent of the directors shall be independent directors in the nomination and remuneration committee

333) All directors of the nomination and remuneration committee shall be Directors

334) The listed entity shall constitute a Committee .............. to specifically look into the mechanism of redressal of grievances of shareholders, debenture holders and other security holders.

335) The provisions of this regulation regarding risk management committee shall be applicable to top ........ listed entities, determined on the basis of market capitalization, as at the end of the immediate previous financial year.

336) The Board of directors shall define the role and responsibility of the Risk Management Committee

337) ..................... is not the prime objective of the SEBI Act, 1992:

338) Term of office and conditions of service of Chairman and members of the SEBI as per the rules framed in this regard, the Chairman and Whole time Members may hold office for a period of ..................... years subject to the maximum age limit of ..................... years and can be re-appointed by the Central Government.

339) A part-time member of SEBI may also hold office for a maximum of three years but there .....................

340) The Central Government will have the right to terminate the services of the Chairman or other members appointed to the SEBI (other than its own officials or of the Reserve Bank on the Board) at any time before the expiry of their tenure by giving not less than three months' notice in writing, or ..................... months' salary and allowance in lieu thereof.

341) The Central Government shall have the power to remove a member or the Chairman appointed in SEBI, if he:

342) Any vacancy in the SEBI ..................... invalidate any of the acts or proceeding of the SEBI.

343) The Board may take measures to undertake inspection of any book, or register, or other document or record of any listed public company or a public company which intends to get its securities listed on any recognised stock exchange where the Board has reasonable grounds to believe that such company has been indulging in insider trading or ..................... relating to securities market.

344) The SEBI shall have the same powers as are vested in a ..................... court.

345) The Board may, by an order, for reasons to be recorded in writing, in the interests of investors or securities market, take any of the following measures, either pending investigation or inquiry or on completion of such investigation or inquiry:

346) SEBI Act deemed to have come into force on the

347) The SEBI Act, 1992 extends to whole of India

348) For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that the power to issue directions under this section shall include and always be deemed to have been included the power to direct any person, who made profit or averted loss by indulging in any transaction or activity in contravention of the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992 or regulations made there under, to disgorge an ..................... to the wrongful gain made or loss averted by such contravention.

349) Where the Board has reasonable ground to believe that the transactions in securities are being dealt with in a manner detrimental to the investors or the securities market; or any intermediary or any person associated with the securities market has violated any of the provisions of The SEBI Act, 1992 or the rules or the regulations made or directions issued by the Board there under. It may, at any time by order in writing, direct any person as:

350) Penalty for default in case of person, registered as a stock broker fails to issue contract notes in the form and manner specified by the stock exchange of which such broker is a member, he shall be liable to a penalty of more than llakh but which may extend .....................

351) Any insider shall be liable to a penalty of more than ten lakh rupees extending upto ..................... , whichever is higher:

352) A Bench constituted by the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal under The SEBI Act, 1992 with two or more Judicial or ..................... Members as he may deem fit:

353) A Bench constituted by the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal under The SEBI Act, 1992 shall include at least ..................... Judicial Member and one Technical Member

354) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal constituted under The SEBI Act, 1992, unless he is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court or a Judge of ..................... for at least seven years.

355) Qualification for appointment as Presiding Officer or Member of Securities Appellate Tribunal constituted under The SEBI Act, 1992 is ..................... :

356) The Presiding Officer and Judicial Members of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the ..................... or his nominee:

357) Time limit for every appeal filed with Securities Appellate Tribunal established under the SEBI Act, 1992 shall be filed within a period ..................... from the date on receipt of order:

358) Provided that the Securities Appellate Tribunal ..................... entertain an appeal after the expiry of specified period if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it within that period.

359) Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the Supreme Court within ..................... days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal to him on any question of law arising out of such order:

360) Save as otherwise provided in the SEBI Act 1992, the provisions of the ..................... shall apply to the proceedings before a Special Court and for the purposes of the said provisions, the Special Court shall be deemed to be a Court of Session.

361) 'Where Service is a way of Life' is the tagline of which of the following banks?

362) National Small Saving is part of _______.

363) The Reserve Bank of India has advised SCBs to appoint Internal Ombudsman under the section 35A of ________.

364) Mutual Funds are mandatory to be registered under ________.

365) ______ measures the amount of money flowing from one country to other countries over one monetary year.

366) Which among the following deposits allows the depositor to withdraw funds from the account without notice?

367) Who appoints the Chairman of Finance Commission?

368) Which among the following would help Cooperative banks to get Core Banking Access?

369) What is the full form of 'ULIP', the term which was in the news recently?

370) The type of fund that invest exclusively in government securities is known as _______.

371) What is the maximum FDI limit in the Small Finance Banks?

372) The insurance services provided by Banks is commonly known as _____.

373) Cash Reserve Ratio is maintained as a percentage of which of the following measures?

374) A SWIFT code is an international bank code that identifies banks worldwide. In Swift Code, 5th & 6th digits denote

375) Loans of substantially small amount given to low income group is called _______.

376) National Securities Depository Limited was established in which year?

377) Which among the following services cannot be provided through Micro ATMs?

378) The Rate of Interests is determined by ________?

379) Which Credit Rating Agency is the largest in the World?

380) Who is the current head of Central Registry of Securitization Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest (CERSAI)?

381) Bandhan Bank has launched a co-branded credit card with ______ to offer complete services to its existing customers.

382) RuPay is India's indigenous card scheme created by Which of the following organizations?

383) Introduction of Mutual Fund was done in which year?

384) What is the Full Form of APR?

385) Which among the following is one of the trigger points of Prompt Corrective Action?

386) The Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2019 has set ________ day deadline for rescuing companies in distress to fast track cleaning up of bad assets.

387) When was Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation established under RBI?

388) Which was the first RRB to Set up in India?

389) Who heads the Board for Payment & Settlements Systems?

390) Which of the following bank says to you, "Apno ka Bank"?

391) Which of the following recomm-ended by RBI as a part of anti money laundering measures?

392) The RBI is not expected to perform the function of?

393) The amount of funds that the banks have to keep with RBI is known as?

394) The amount a commercial bank needs to maintain in the form of cash, or gold or govt. approved securities (Bonds) before providing credit to its customers, is known as?

395) Which of the following is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances provided to commercial banks?

396) The rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks?

397) The rate at which banks park their short-term excess liquidity with the RBI is known as?

398) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means?

399) The number of regional offices of RBI?

400) RBI generally reviews the Monetary policy for every?

401) Which of the following persons can be appointed as registered valuers:

402) When shall the resolution professional notify the participants and the Adjudicating Authority of any resultant change in the committee due to transfer of debt:

403) Which of the following does not constitute "Insolvency resolution process costs"?

404) Which of the following is not an essential supply?

405) If the estimate of liquidation value of two registered valuers are different, then the resolution professional shall:

406) A resolution plan shall not provide:

407) Provisions of 1BC, 2016 shall apply in relation to the insolvency, liquidation, voluntary liquidation or bankruptcy, as the case may be of various entities. On which of the following entities provisions of IBC, 2016 are not applicable.

408) On which of the below mentioned entities, provisions of IBC, 2016 shall apply in relation to the insolvency, liquidation, voluntary liquidation or bankruptcy, as the case may be?

409) An Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (1BBI) will be established by ............... u/s 188(1) of IBC, 2016.

410) An Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) shall be a body corporate having ............... .

411) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) will have powers of ............... in respect of issuing summons, discovery and production of books, inspection of books/ registers and issue of commissions for examination of witnesses.

412) The members of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) shall be appointed by the ...............

413) Which of the following Union Ministry Officers is a member of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)?

414) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) will be headed by Chairperson. It will consist of ............... members out of which at least ............... will be whole-time members.

415) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) shall have regard to the certain principles while registering the insolvency professional agencies under IBC, 2016. Identify the principles.

416) The President, the Chairperson or any Member of NCLT or NCLAT may, by notice in writing under his hand addressed to ..................... , resign from his office.

417) The President, the Chairperson or any Member may resign from his office by giving a notice. The President, the Chairperson, or the Member shall continue to hold office until:
(i) The expiry of 3 months from the date of receipt of such notice by the Central Government.
(ii) A person duly appointed as his successor enters upon his office.
(iii) The expiry of his term of office.
Choose the correct one.

418) Mr. Ram was appointed as the member of the National Company Law Tribunal. He (at the age of 63 years) has now resigned from his office by giving a notice to the Central Government, by stating that he will stop acting as a member to NCLT with immediate effect. The Central Government tells him that you have to continue until a person duly appointed as your successor enters upon the office. Is the contention of Central Government correct?

419) The Central Government may remove from office the President, Chairperson or any Member, who has been adjudged an insolvent in the following manner:
1. after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
2. after an inquiry made by a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice of India.
3. after giving him a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Choose the correct one.

420) The President, the Chairperson or the Member shall be removed on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity from his office in the following manner:
1. By an order made by the Central Government.
2. After an inquiry made by a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice of India on a reference made to him by the Central Government.
3. After informing of the charges against such President, the Chairperson or Member and giving him a reasonable opportunity of being heard which.
Choose the correct one.

421) Mr. PRTJ was appointed as a Member of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal. During the month of April, 2018, he has become physically or mentally incapable of acting as a Member. The Central Government after consultation with the Chief Justice of India removed Mr. PRTJ from the membership of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal. Being aggrieved by the decision of the Central Government, Mr. PRTJ approached you to confirm himself whether the decision of the Central Government was appropriate. Advise him.

422) How many Benches of the Tribunal shall be constituted as per the provisions of Companies Act, 2013?

423) The Principal Bench of the Tribunal shall be at ..................... which shall be presided over by the President of the Tribunal.

424) What is the Composition of Benches to exercise powers of NCLT?

425) Benches of Tribunal shall take the decision by majority. But if the Members are equally divided and there is no majority, who shall take the decision?

426) The Tribunal may, after giving the parties to any proceeding before it, a reasonable opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit Can the Tribunal amend such order?

427) Every appeal shall be filed within a period of ..................... from the date on which a copy of the order of the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved and shall be in such form, and accompanied by such fees, as may be prescribed.

428) Every application or petition presented before the Tribunal and every appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal shall be dealt with and disposed of by it as expeditiously as possible and every endeavour shall be made by the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be, for the disposal of such application or petition or appeal within ..................... from the date of its presentation before the Tribunal or the filing of the appeal before the Appellate Tribunal.

429) Any person aggrieved by any order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the

430) All proceedings before the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal shall be deemed to be ..................... , and the Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal shall be deemed to be ..................... for the purposes of Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

431) What is the power of Tribunal to punish for contempt?

432) What is true about application of Limitation Act on Tribunal?

433) ..................... has replaced the Company Law Board (CLB), the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) and the Appellate Authority for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction.

434) After appointment of National Company Law Tribunal, all matters or proceedings or cases pending before the Board of Company Law Administration (Company Law Board) shall ..................... .

435) NCLT and NCLAT do not provide a single window for settlement of all disputes relating to companies. Given statement is .....................

436) Qualification for the President of NCLT is .....................

437) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judicial Member of NLCT unless he is or has been .....................

438) The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal consists of judicial and technical members, not exceeding ..................... , as the Central Government may deem fit.

439) The chairperson of the Appellate Tribunal shall be a person who is or has been .....................

440) Appointment of the Members of the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal shall ..................... by reason of any vacancy or any defect in the constitution of the Selection Committee.

441) The President and every other Member of the Tribunal shall hold office for a term of ..................... years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

442) Under section 413 (2), a Member of the Tribunal shall hold office as such until he attains in the case of the President, the age of ..................... years, in the case of any other Member, the age of .................. years.

443) A person who has not completed 50 years of age shall be eligible for appointment as Member of Tribunal. Given statement is .....................

444) In the event of the occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the President or the Chairperson by reason of his death, resignation or otherwise, the ..................... shall act as the President or the Chairperson.

445) The President, the Chairperson or any Member may, by notice in writing under his hand addressed to the Central Government, resign from his office. Provided that the President, the Chairperson, or the Member shall continue to hold office:

446) The Central Government may, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, remove from office the President, Chairperson or any Member, who:

447) Benches of Tribunal consists of 2 person out of whom one shall be a ..................... and the other shall be a ..................... :

448) If there is a difference of opinion within the members of the bench and it cannot be decided by majority due to equal votes, what are the possible options in line within the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:

449) The Tribunal may, at any time within ..................... year/s from the date of the order, with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record, amend any order passed by it.

450) Every appeal to AT against order of Tribunal shall be filed within a period of ..................... days from the date on which a copy of the order of the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved.

451) The time limit for disposal of appeal filed before Tribunal is 3 months. The appeal .....................

452) Any person aggrieved by any order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the Supreme Court within ..................... days from the date of receipt of the order of the Appellate Tribunal.

453) Civil court shall also have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered to determine by or under the Companies Act or any other law for the time being in. The statement is .............

454) Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Company Law Board made before notified date may file an appeal to the .................. within specified time limit from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Company Law Board to him on any question of law arising out of such order:

455) Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Company Law Board made before notified date may file an appeal to the High Court with-in ..................... days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Company Law Board to him on any question of law arising out of such order: