Practice Test


1) Under repo rate banks can borrow above SLR requirements, under MSF, banks can borrow within SLR requirements.
Select the above correct statements.


2) Which among the following in India can use ‘Repo Bonds’ to raise short term money from markets?
1. Commercial Bank
2. Regional Bank
3. Corporate
4. Governments
Select the above correct statements


3) A Company making a public of securities has to file a Draft Red Herring Prospects with SEBI through an eligible merchant banker prior to filling a prospects with the registrar of Companies. What information does this Draft Red Herring Prospects provide?
1. Financial details about the company
2. Price and size of offerings
3. Products details
4. Objects of raising money
Select the above correct statements


4) Consider the following statements:
1. Government of India has set up a Price Monitoring Cell(PM
C) in the department of Agriculture to monitor and analyze price data and trends of availability of essential commodities.
2. Price Monitoring Cell (PMC) monitors 21 essential commodities.
Select the above correct statements.


5) One of the economic laws says that as income increases, the proportion of starchy staples in the food basket decline relative to the share of more expensive sources of calories. Recent NSSO data showing a significant increase in the share of protein rich items in total food expenditure, both in rural and urban areas of India to confirm this hypothesis.

What this hypothesis is known as?


6) Consider the following statements about Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF) in India:
1. Infrastructure debt fund are regulated by Planning commission
2. Infrastructure debt fund can be established as a trust in India, but not in company.
Select the above correct statements.


7) In one of the Seminar’s the Governor of RBI said that the schemes like ‘Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme’ (MNREGA) have played role in increasing inflation. How MNREGA could have stirred up inflationary pressure?
1. By Increasing demand 2. By increasing rural wage
3. By increasing production Select the above correct statements.


8) In context with India’s oil and gas fields consider the following.
1. Only gas Fields 2. Only Oil fields 3. Oil and gas fields.
Which among the following option gives the correct order of numbers of fields classified as above?


9) It has been generally viewed that when an economy grows beyond its potential growth rate, it causes inflation. How does growing faster than the potential rate cause inflation?


10) Consider the following statement context with India’s planning commission:
1. A Planning in the sense of formal projects on the basis of the certain sets of assumption started only in the second five year plan in India.
2. The Mahalanobis model of growing corporate possibilities opened up the foreign trade. Select the above correct statements.


11) Which among the following given a justification about the fact ‘Green Revolution has not been green as it made out to be’
1. It helped only farmers 2. It confined to selected areas only
3. It confined only to wheat
Select the above correct statements


12) Consider the following
1. Trade and earn revenue
2. Become the sole controller of food grain supply
3. Prevent Black marketing
Which among the following are the primary objectives of the government to buy food grains directly from the farmers?


13) India has a high export earnings from diamonds. In this context, consider the following:
1. Small Production of Industrial Diamonds
2. High Diamonds stock
3. Availability of experts on cutting and polishing.
Which among the above is most appropriate reason being the above statements?


14) 1853 is a landmark in India’s Transport because of:
1. First cargo plane 2. First train 3. First sir plane
4. First cargo ship
Which of the above is correct answer?


15) Consider the following factors:
1. High investment in Industries
2. Expanding market
3. Dynamic entrepreneurship
Which of the above are required for accelerated growth of an economy?


16) Which among the following is the most important bulk import of India?


17) Which among the following is characterizes by highest fixed cost and lowest Running cost?


18) Consider the following works:
1. Arrange facilities for transport of Agriculture produce
2. Acquire building and go down at suitable places
3. Subscribing to share capital of state warehousing corporations
Which among the above function a performed by central warehousing corporation


19) Which among the following is the cheapest mode of transport in terms of fixed plus running costs?


20) Consider the following
1. Use of hybrid yielding varieties seeds. 2. Uneconomical and fragmented
3. Inefficient labour force.
Which among the above are the reasons for low productivity in Indian Agriculture?


21) Which among the following was set up by government of India in 1988 with objective of developing multi model logistics support for India’s International and domestic containerizes cargo and trade


22) Who among the following leaders announced the industrial policy of 1956?


23) Which among the following is correct full form of SIDO:


24) What is the meaning of “financing” in the financial market?


25) Financial instrument such as commercial paper can be sold


26) Type of instrument whoever holds it, gets interest and principal amount is classified as


27) Negotiable deposit certificate are traded in


28) In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is considered as


29) India is a member of the International Monetary Fund since __________.


30) Markets in which derivatives are traded, are classified as


31) Transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is classified as


32) Type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified as


33) Financial instruments of public markets include


34) The market which deals in trade bills, promissory notes and government papers or bills, which are drawn for short-periods is called


35) A financial market in which short-term papers or bills are brought and sold is known as


36) In order to protect the interests of investors and regulate the working of stock exchanges, the Government in 1988 set up the


37) The financial market for long-term funds is known as


38) Finance Function comprises


39) The objective of wealth maximization takes into account


40) Financial management mainly focuses on


41) When the market's required rate of return for a particular bond is much less than its coupon rate, the bond is selling at


42) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to


43) Interest rates and bond prices


44) Development financial institutions include__________.


45) The unorganized financial system includes__________.


46) Development financial institutions have been established to cater to __________ of the industrial sector.


47) The ultimate source of money in India is__________.


48) Long-term debt instruments have a maturity of__________.


49) The organized financial system includes__________.


50) The unorganized financial system comprises of __________.


51) The lender of the last resort to the market is the __________.


52) The term refers financial investment in a highly risky and growth oriented venture with the objective of earning a high rate of return.


53) .............. is a road towards a high growth economy.


54) ............... act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund.


55) V C Fs of specialized financial institution promoted by .


56) I D B I , I F C I , I C I C I etc. are promoted by .


57) Write the example of V C Fs of state financial institution.


58) Which of the following is a V C F promoted by specialized financial institution.


59) off shore VCFs are promoted by _________& financial institution.


60) High risk is an outstanding feature of.....................


61) _________is needed for developing a product in the initial stages.


62) ............... capital is needed for product development and initial marketing


63) _______provided at a stage when product has been launched in the market but has not earned enough profits to meet future capital needs.


64) ............... capital is provided for early manufacturing and marketing expense.


65) The additional finance provided by VCFs to overcome fledging stage is called .


66) ............... is known as Mezzanine capital.


67) _________stage is called fledging stage.


68) -----------stage of financing includes financing development, expansion, buyout etc.


69) ............... is known as bridge finance.


70) ............... refers to transfer of management control.


71) ............... refer to the process of acquiring an existing product line by the current operating management


72) We should keep our savings with banks because


73) Bank does not give loan against


74) Bank having maximum number of branches in India


75) 100/- Rupee note is signed by


76) ATM password should be kept in


77) ATM password to be shared only with


78) Nomination can be done in


79) Who is the present Governor of RBI?


80) Minimum age required to open SB account in the bank


81) Bank does not provide loans for


82) KYC means


83) Loans from money lenders are


84) ATM means


85) Timely repayment of loans results


86) Defaulter of loan means


87) Life insurance means


88) General Insurance relates to insurance against


89) Aadhaar is


90) E or S means


91) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in :


92) States earn maximum revenue through


93) Abid Husain Committee is related to ?


94) Which one of the following is the banker of the banks


95) Which five year plan is also known as "Gadgil Yojana"


96) The increase in oil seeds production was due to ?


97) The progress in increase of fish production was called


98) Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country ?


99) India holds the third position in production of Sugar cane.


100) When was SIDBI established


101) What is one of the major objectives of SIDBI ?


102) Which among the following is not an initiative of SIDBI?


103) Who has the majority shareholding in SIDBI?


104) What is the authorised capital of SIDBI?


105) What is the paid up capital of SIDBI?


106) Which one out of the following subsidiaries has been set up by SIDBI with the concept of “funding the unfunded” micro enterprises


107) What is the authorised capital of MUDRA?


108) What is the maximum limit of loan that can be availed under under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana?


109) According to funding needs, under how many categories beneficiaries are divided under MUDRA?


110) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Central Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank?


111) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank?


112) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Chhattisgarh RajyaGramin Bank?


113) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank?


114) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of EllaquaiDehati Bank?


115) Which of the following bank is (?????)


116) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of J&K Grameen Bank?


117) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Jharkhand Gramin Bank?


118) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Karnataka VikasGrameena Bank?


119) The International Co-operative Alliance appointed a sub-committee in for the first reformulation of Principles of Co-operative Sector.


120) For the second reformulation of Principles of Co-operative Sector, The International Co-operative Alliance appointed a sub-committee in


121) The International Co-operative Alliance revised the co-operative principles for the third time in its Manchester Congress in


122) ..............has been compared to a “State within A State”


123) .................plays an equalizing role as a welfare factor in a capitalistic economy.


124) is a voluntary and democratic association of human beings, based on equality
of control, opportunity, distribution and mutuality for the promotion of their common interests as producers or consumers


125) serves as an organizational instrument for the economically weaker
producers-farmers, artisans or workers and consumers for strengthening themselves and protecting themselves against the exploitation by the stronger.


126) The word literally means to work together or act together.


127) The I.C.A appointed a Commission in to ascertain how far the
principles of the Rochdale as defined by I.C.A in 1937 are observed today and the reasons for any non-observance


128) is based on the principle of self interest, maximization of profits
and exploitation


129) Recently RBI came up guidelines to incorporate the Name of the Purchaser on the Face of the Demand Draft. These instructions are applicable on instruments issued on or after _____ ?


130) Within how many working days, the customer has to notify the bank regarding the unauthorised transaction so that there is zero liability of customer?


131) The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is related to citizens of which country?


132) Consider the following statements regarding Ombudsman Scheme for NBFC:a) Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934 confers powers on RBI to notify such scheme
b) NBFCs having customer interface, with assets size of one billion rupees or above are eligible to be covered under the scheme
c) The scheme is initially being introduced at the four metro centers
d) All NBFCs are covered under the scheme
Choose the correct answer from the following options:


133) Which among the following does not have Ombudsman office for NBFC?


134) Under the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC, who is the appellate authority for handling the complaints


135) Which among the following NBFC are not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC?


136) What is the maximum amount of award that can be passed by Ombudsman for NBFC?


137) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate exposure limit of a single lender to all borrowers at any point of time, across all P2Ps?


138) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate loan limit of a single borrower at any point of time, across all P2Ps?


139) Capital market regulator is:


140) Two sell orders enter into the system and are unmatched : 1) 200 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:30 a.m. which order will get a priority for getting executed.


141) The Trading Members shall keep the dematerialized securities of Constituents in a separate beneficiary account distinct from the beneficiary account maintained for holding their own dematerialized securities. True or False?


142) If a client buys shares worth Rs. 5,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 4,75,000 through a broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to broker is .


143) Which of the following economic concepts is ‘categorised on the basis of current account or capital account or both?


144) Mr. Shah has decided to deposit Rs. 300,000 in the bank annually. If the bank has a policy of continuous compounding and the prevailing interest rate is 12% how much would his deposit grow upto in 3 years?


145) What does ‘AUI’ indicate as a message code in ‘Full Message window’ in the NEAT system?


146) Institutional transactions are identified by the use of the at the time of order entry.


147) A user can simultaneously view a regular inquiry (e.g. MBP) and the Snap Quote display on the trading screen. True or False?


148) A company has ................


149) Shareholders are


150) Who are the real owners of a company?


151) A Company is created by


152) An artificial person created by Law is called :


153) The liability of members in a Company is :


154) Liability of a shareholder is limited to ................ of the shares allotted to him:


155) Maximum number of members in a private company is :


156) Capital of a Company is divided in units which is called :


157) Shareholders receive from the company :


158) .............. means buying the control of a sick company


159) Venture capital organized in .


160) Financing sick unit to make them profitable is called ________


161) The purpose of valuation is to assess the -------------- & viability of the venture & to device of the percentage of the VCF ownership in the new venture


162) ..........is used to estimate the value of venture capital investment


163) The purpose of valuation is to assess the profitability &-----------of the venture


164) ............... types of valuation method can be adopted by VCFs


165) In method the starting time & exit time of the venture investment is only considered


166) In the method the entire earnings stream of the venture investment is considered


167) The is used to estimate the annual revenue of the new company.


168) js an interest free loan provided by VCFs without any predetermined repayment schedule.


169) form of loan financing carries lower interest rates initially & increases when the assisted venture units become commercially operational.


170) .............. are instruments which carry a lower interest rate plus a royalty on sales


171) .............. is a combination of conventional and conditional loans


172) The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called .


173) In nurturing the VCFs play only a passive role in the affairs of the venture.


174) ............... is known as promoters buy back


175) is a forced exit option results from a failed venture investment


176) VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under the Indian act .


177) partner whose liability is unlimited


178) There are VCFs registered with SEBL


179) IDBI venture capital fund was starts in .


180) was setup in 1989


181) The first nationalized bank in India to start a VCF


182) .-------- of the venture capital fund created by government and operated through IDBI.


183) is oldest private sector venture fund in India.


184) SIDBI venture capital scheme started operation in .


185) Software fund is the first dedicated fund for software industry setup in


186) ._______ is established to provide mezzanine finance to mid-cap companies in the knowledge based sector.


187) The first bank to set up a separate merchant banking division in India


188) The first Indian commercial bank to set up a merchant banking division in 1972.


189) Which of the following is not a fee-based financial service?


190) Which of the following is not a fund based financial services


191) AII merchant bankers must have minimum net worth of .


192) Find out odd one- Authorization criteria of merchant bankers


193) Financial intermediaries provide services on the basis of non-fund activities, also called


194) .---------- covers the entire range of services provided by a merchant banker.


195) Functions of financial services exclude


196) Financial service companies exclude .


197) Specialized financial institution, are also known as .


198) Financial services offered financing risk project e.g. Risk capital scheme of I F C I venture capital fund of I D F I etc. to provide


199) Identify odd one


200) In hire purchase system, each installment is treated as till the last installment is paid.


201) Fee based activity includes .


202) Asset based service also called .


203) Non fund based activities also called .


204) Modern activities exclude.


205) includes all asset based financing plans offered to individuals to help them acquire durable consumer goods


206) Functions of a factor exclude


207) the Factor assume credit risk associated with the -----------


208) is the charge for short term financing in the form of advance part payment is in the form of interest charge for the period of advance payment.


209) Who is the chairman of high powered committee constituted by the R B I under factoring services


210) The minimum under writing obligation of a load merchant banker is of the total underwriting
commitment.


211) The maximum number of lead merchant bankers that can be appointed in the case the issue exceeds Rs.100crore less than Rs.200crore is .


212) Category 1 merchant bankers can act as


213) Merchant bankers are


214) Merchant banker shall not associate with any business other than that of the securities market.


215) All type of activities which are of a financial nature are called


216) Find out odd one


217) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceeds in case any issue of , issue size less than Rs.50crore,number of MBs


218) R O C stands for


219) iS a written consent or authorization representing or acting on Denair or an individual in matters or business, private affairs or other legal matters.


220) Lead merchant banker should advice the issuer to enter into with a particular intermediary for the purpose of issue management


221) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceed in case any issue of, issue size 200crore to 400crore


222) Post issue management activities include:-


223) Pre-issue management activities include:-


224) A merchant bank can help an organization specifically in promotional functions, .


225) Role of merchant bankers


226) __________is a financial intermediary who helps to mobilize and transfer capital from those who possess it to those who need it.


227) is a method of renting assets.


228) is a long term risk capital to finance high technology projects which involve risk but at same time has strong potential for growth.


229) _________is the opinion of the rating agency on the relative ability and willingness of the issuer of deby instrument to meet the debt service obligations as and when they arise.


230) The features of hire purchase


231) discounting of the bill of exchange is an attractive ---------------based financial service provided by the finance companies


232) Factoring is method of raising finance through account receivable credit offered by commercial banks and factors


233) Insurance is a


234) is a fund based financial service, provides resources of finance receivable as well as facilities the collection of receivables


235) is a service offered by a stock broker ie; buying and selling or dealing in shares on behalf of the customers


236) Which is prohibited for writing on currency notes?


237) PPF means


238) Highest denomination of currency notes issued by RBI is


239) NRI means


240) PAN means


241) Who is the present Chairman of State Bank of India?


242) Bank provides loans for


243) Which currency note has security thread?


244) The safest place for keeping money


245) Gold and silver ornaments should be kept in bank lockers


246) Currency notes are issued by


247) Coins are issued by


248) Bank Pass Book is


249) Banks pays interest on


250) Bank charges interest on


251) Education Loans


252) Business Correspondent means


253) Internet banking refers to


254) Nomination once done can


255) Who can open bank account?


256) TDS means


257) Maximum amount of Cheque


258) Bank draft is issued by


259) Self Help Group involves


260) Payment of cheque can be stopped by


261) Account payee cheques can be paid


262) In Recurring Deposits


263) While making nomination, signature of nominee is required on


264) Interest on Savings Bank Deposits is paid


265) Mutilated notes


266) ATM can be used for


267) Upon detection of a counterfeit note at the counter, Bank


268) Fixed Deposit can


269) Interest on FDRs is compounded on


270) Contents of locker are


271) If locker rent is not paid, Bank can


272) MGNREGS stands for


273) Maximum tenure of Fixed Deposit is


274) Domestic debit card


275) To whom Overdraft facility of Rs.5,000/- in PMJDY Account is available?


276) What is Direct Benefit Transfer?


277) What is meant by Aadhaar seeding?


278) What are the benefits attached to PMJDY?


279) Who can open an account under PMJDY?


280) Who is Bank Mitra?


281) What is the maximum amount of deposits acceptable in Small accounts?


282) What kinds of services are available free in 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'?


283) What is the minimum deposit required while opening a BSBD Account?


284) What is Atal Pension Yojana (APY)?


285) What is Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)?


286) What is Pradhan Mantri Jivan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)?


287) Which type of deposits earns higher interest rate?


288) Under PMSBY, accidental death claim is available for:


289) What is validity period of cheque?


290) Can illiterate person be issued Debit card?


291) Under APY, fixed pension can be chosen from:


292) PMJDY LIC Insurance of Rs.30,000/- is available for first time accounts opened


293) are not covered under
PMJDY Life Insurance Scheme of Rs.30,000/-


294) South Indian Bank has its headquarter in which state?


295) Which of the following banks has its headquarters in Tamil Nadu?


296) Which of the following banks is ready to acquire Micro finance Grama Vidiyal?


297) The newest private sector bank, Bandhan Bank has announced that it targets 180 new branches by March 2017. Who is the MD and CEO of Bandhan Bank?


298) Which is the first bank in India to integrate the Masterpass QR Mobile Payment solution?


299) Which bank has become the first private sector bank to sell Indian gold coins?


300) Which private bank was earlier known as The Kumbakonam Bank Limited?


301) Which Private bank is the wholly owned subsidiary of Bank of Baroda?


302) Yes Bank in August 2016 rolled out which facility under its ‘Yes We Care’ initiative?


303) Name the mobile banking app of Kotak Mahindra Bank (KMB) launched primarily for “un-banked” regions?


304) The Hinduja Group, headquartered at London, UK owns the IndusInd Bank in India. Where are the headquarters of IndusInd bank?


305) Which of the following banks has teamed up with Apollo to set up Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC)?


306) Which one of the following is controlled by the World Wide Web?


307) Who has been named as the best banking CEO in Asia by the All-Asia Executive Team rankings 2016?


308) Among the following banks, which bank has been renamed as Axis Bank Ltd?


309) Oudh Commercial Bank was founded in _______.


310) Which was the second bank in India with limited liability?


311) Punjab National Bank was established in ________.


312) Which movement encouraged the formation of commercial banks?


313) When did the banking crisis of 1913-1917 end?


314) When the statutory7 potvers was given to Securities and Exchange Board of India


315) Where the headquarters of SEBI is located


316) In 2013 Union budget of India, in which category highest amount of money is allocated


317) Which one is the largest source of revenue for the Indian Government


318) When the Value Added Tax was first introduce in India


319) Devaluation of currency leads to ?


320) Sales Tax is


321) Which five year plan is also known as "Gadgil Yojana" ?


322) When community development programme (CDP) started ?


323) India is the largest milk producing country in the world .


324) The main office of Regional Office for Asia and the Pacific of ICA is
at


325) Expand CCW


326) Expand ICAO


327) The Cooperative Credit Societies Act was passed in


328) The Cooperative Societies Act was passed in


329) The Reserve Bank of India was established in


330) In the five year plan the Central Committee for Cooperative
Training was established


331) In the National Cooperative Development Corporation(NCDC) was
established for strengthening the cooperative activities.


332) Expand NCDC


333) In the five year plan the All India Rural Credit Review
Committee was set up.


334) In 1970 the Reserve bank of India set up the for the review of
rural credit system


335) The Committee constituted to Review the Arrangements for
Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development in 1981, recommended the establishment of NABARD


336) The Sivaraman Committee constituted to Review the Arrangements for
Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development in 1981, recommended the establishment of


337) The Sivaraman Committee was constituted in the five year plan and it
recommended the establishment of NABARD.


338) The committee was appointed by the Planning Commission of
India to prepare a Model Cooperative Bill.


339) In India cooperative legislation started in


340) The shortcomings in the Act of 1904 was removed by another legislation known
as


341) The committee,1945 observed that the Act of 1912 needed revision in certain respects and recommended that the provinces in which the cooperative societies act of 1912 was in force should pass special acts keeping in view their past experience and the future needs of the movement.


342) The report submitted by the consisted of two volumes: the
first contained Model Cooperative Societies Bill and Rules and the second volume contained model bye-laws for various types of societies.


343) A novel form of cooperative organization known as Producer Company was introduced by amending the


344) NCUI is


345) PACS is


346) LAMPS stands for


347) DCCBs stands for


348) SCARDBs stands for


349) SCBs stand for


350) NAFED stands for


351) The Established in 1958 has been playing an important role in
the development of cooperative marketing in India.


352) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation established in has been playing an important role in the development of cooperative marketing in India.


353) The first marketing cooperative was organized at In the former Bombay
province in 1915


354) The first marketing cooperative was organized at Hubli in the former Bombay
province in


355) The National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation was established during the Plan.


356) DCCWSs stands for


357) NCHF stands for


358) The Urban cooperative banks, salary earners’ societies, thrift and credit societies are examples of


359) The implemented the “Operation Flood Programme


360) LAMPS, TDCCFs, BISCOLAMF, TRIFED are cooperatives working for the
upliftment of


361) The Jute industry is one of the major industries in


362) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at


363) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at Allahabad in UP
was called


364) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union at Anand was formed in


365) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union was formed in 1946
at


366) . The products of is popularly known by the brand name
‘Amul’.


367) Operation Flood Programme is related to organizing throughout the
country.


368) The Operation Flood progamme was started on


369) Robert Owen, Dr. William King, Lougi Luzzatti, Louis Blanc are examples of some of the


370) The process of concentration of cooperative activities at the primary level either
by the amalgamation of two or more societies carrying out the same business or by the incorporation of several functions in one society is known as


371) Two or more single-purpose societies working closely together without losing their identity is called


372) The Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co Operative Society Ltd is known by the
sobriquet was formed in the beginning of 1961 for the Weavers in the Co¬
Operative Sector of Kerala


373) The , the Apex Federation of Co-operative
Societies engaged in the manufacture of coir and coir products is entrusted with the task of marketing the product of the Co-operative Societies


374) is instrumental in implementing the novel schemes of Govt. of
Kerala like Distress purchase scheme, Fibre subsidy scheme, Price fluctuation fund, Purchase price stabilization scheme etc


375) Cocofert, Cocoplus, Cocogeo fabric, Dustout and Deepsleepare the brand names of products of


376) MATSYAFED refers to


377) The is the apex federation of the consumer cooperatives in
India.


378) NCCF was set up on and is administered under the Multi
State Cooperative Societies Act 2002


379) NCCF was set up on 16 October, 1965 and is administered under the


380) is the apex institution for financing housing through the Primary
Housing Co-operatives (PHCs) in Kerala State.


381) The KSCHF was registered on


382) The was established in 1969 as an apex organization for
coordinating, guiding and promoting cooperative housing activities in India.


383) The Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co Operative Society Ltd. “Hantex” was
formed in the beginning of for the Weavers in the Co-Operative Sector of
Kerala.


384) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED),
established in


385) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in


386) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in 1963 by
the Central Government by passing


387) The was setup in 1963 by the Central Government
by passing NCDC Act in 1962


388) The creation of in 1965 was a major step towards
the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.


389) The creation of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)in was a
major step towards the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.


390) In 1969-70 NDDB introduced a scheme for the development of dairy co¬operatives known as


391) The first marketing cooperative was organized at in the former Bombay
Province in 1915


392) The first marketing cooperative was organized at Hubli in the former Bombay
Province in


393) When Agro processing companies enter into contract with the farmers to provide
the farmers with the inputs like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and guidelines to grow crops and buy back the products with a rate specified in advance, it is known as


394) The well-known sobriquet ‘MILMA’ refers to


395) Kerala Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation (KCMMF), popularly called
‘MILMA’ was established in


396) The farmer-owned Co-operative Model with is integrated approach to
production, procurement, Processing and Marketing of milk came to be known as


397) The Registered Office of NAFCUB is at and the area of operation
is whole of the country


398) The was set up in 1960 & is administered under the
Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.


399) The number of SCARDBs in India as on 31st March 2013 is


400) The number of PCARDBsin India as on 31st March 2013 is


401) The number Branches of PCARDBs in India as on 31st March 2013
is


402) The National Co-operative Agriculture & Rural Development Banks’ Federation
was registered on
with the main objective of promoting the
interests of the Long Term Co-operative Credit Structure (LTCCS) movement in the country


403) The term “cooperative farming” is collective farming.


404) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in 1920
at


405) It was from the beginning of the that the policies oriented
towards development purposes were adopted and land mortgage banks were called “Land Development Banks”.


406) The are organized in 3 tiers namely; state, central, and
primary level and they meet the long term credit requirements of the farmers for developmental purposes.


407) are now known as Cooperative Agriculture and Rural
Development Banks


408) The origins of the urban co-operative banking movement in India can be traced
to the close of


409) Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agricultural and
Rural Development, under the chairmanship of Sri B Sivaraman recommended the establishment of


410) At Ajmer in Rajasthan the first DCB was established in


411) The first DCB was established at in 1910.


412) The first DCB was established at in 1910.


413) is the vertex of the pyramidal structure in a State for the
provision of short and medium term credit to agriculturists on cooperative basis.


414) A also acts as a balancing center and clearing house for the
central cooperative banks.


415) is the birth-place of land mortgage banking


416) Germany is the birth-place of


417) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in
at Jhang in Punjab


418) The Urban Credit Cooperatives are also commonly known as


419) The cooperative credit institutions in the country may be broadly classified into..


420) With regard to short-term credit cooperatives, at the central level
act as a link between primary societies and State Cooperative Apex Banks.


421) The controls the cooperative banks that falls under the
banking regulation act of 1949


422) NCCT stands for


423) NCCT was recommended by


424) VAMNICOM stands for


425) NCCE stands for


426) The cooperator is a journal published by NCUI


427) NCUI stands for


428) Indian Cooperative Review is a of NCUI


429) In India, Cooperative Week will be celebrated in the month of


430) Co-operative movement originated first in


431) One man one vote’ principle was recommended by ---------- Committee


432) The members of a Co-operative Society have ------- liability


433) Which of the following organizational structure is followed by Co-operatives in India?


434) A novel form of cooperative organization known as Producer Company was introduced by amending the …………………..


435) PACS is


436) DCCBs stands for


437) NAFED stands for


438) The ………………. Established in 1958 has been playing an important role in the development of cooperative marketing in India


439) The National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation was established during the………Plan.


440) DCCWSs stands for


441) NCHF stands for


442) The Jute industry is one of the major industries in ……………


443) NCCT stands for………………


444) VAMNICOM stands for …………..


445) NCCE stands for……………….


446) NCUI stands for …………………….


447) Apex Society means --------- level society


448) The President of a Co-operative Society is


449) Interest Rate of Deposits of a Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by


450) The Rules and Regulations of a Co-operative Society is formed in its


451) The Co-operative Societies Act was passed in India in the year


452) The word literally means to work together or act together.


453) The I.C.A appointed a Commission in ………………….. to ascertain how far the principles of the Rochdale as defined by I.C.A in 1937 are observed today and the reasons for any non-observance.


454) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at Allahabad in UP was called……………..


455) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union at Anand was formed in………


456) The products of …………………….. is popularly known by the brand name ‘Amul’.


457) Operation Flood Programme is related to organizing …………..throughout the country.


458) Robert Owen, Dr. William King, Lougi Luzzatti, Louis Blanc are examples of some of the


459) The process of concentration of cooperative activities at the primary level either by the amalgamation of two or more societies carrying out the same business or by the incorporation of several functions in one society is known as…………….


460) Two or more single-purpose societies working closely together without losing their identity is called


461) The………………………………………, the Apex Federation of Co-operative Societies engaged in the manufacture of coir and coir products is entrusted with the task of marketing the product of the Co-operative Societies


462) Cocofert, Cocoplus, Cocogeo fabric, Dustout and Deepsleepare the brand names of products of


463) The ……………………..is the apex federation of the consumer cooperatives in India.


464) NCCF was set up on and is administered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act 2002


465) NCCF was set up on 16 October, 1965 and is administered under the …………..


466) The was established in 1969 as an apex organization for coordinating, guiding and promoting cooperative housing activities in India.


467) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED), established in ……


468) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in 1963 by the Central Government by passing ………………..


469) The …………………………… was setup in 1963 by the Central Government by passing NCDC Act in 1962


470) The creation of ……………………………. in 1965 was a major step towards the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.


471) In 1969-70 NDDB introduced a scheme for the development of dairy co- operatives known as .. …


472) When Agro processing companies enter into contract with the farmers to provide the farmers with the inputs like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and guidelines to grow crops and buy back the products with a rate specified in advance, it is known as………..


473) The farmer-owned Co-operative Model with is integrated approach to production, procurement, Processing and Marketing of milk came to be known as……..


474) The was set up in 1960 & is administered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.


475) The National Co-operative Agriculture & Rural Development Banks’ Federation was registered on ………………………..with the main objective of promoting the interests of the Long Term Co-operative Credit Structure (LTCCS) movement in the country


476) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in 1920 at…………..


477) The ………………………. are organized in 3 tiers namely; state, central, and primary level and they meet the long term credit requirements of the farmers for developmental purposes.


478) The origins of the urban co-operative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of ………………………..


479) Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agricultural and Rural Development, under the chairmanship of Sri B Sivaraman recommended the establishment of ………………………


480) The first DCB was established at.....in 1910


481) ……………………..is the vertex of the pyramidal structure in a State for the provision of short and medium term credit to agriculturists on cooperative basis.


482) A …………………. also acts as a balancing center and clearing house for the central cooperative banks


483) The Urban Credit Cooperatives are also commonly known as ……………….


484) The cooperative credit institutions in the country may be broadly classified into..


485) With regard to short-term credit cooperatives, at the central level……………………….. act as a link between primary societies and State Cooperative Apex Banks.


486) The ……………………… controls the cooperative banks that falls under the banking regulation act of 1949.


487) Co-operative movement originated first in


488) The Co-operative Societies Act was passed in India in the year


489) One man one vote’ principle was recommended by Committee


490) Apex Society means level society


491) The members of a Co-operative Society have liability


492) The President of a Co-operative Society is


493) Which of the following organizational structure is followed by Co-operatives in India?


494) Interest Rate of Deposits of a Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by


495) The Rules and Regulations of a Co-operative Society is formed in its


496) Co-operation is included in the schedule of Indian Constitution


497) The first Indian RRB that achieved Core Banking Solution (CBS) in 2011 is ________?


498) Co-operative banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India under which act?


499) Co-operative banks which work at a metropolitan level are called as?


500) Which one of the apex bodies regulates the cooperative banks in India?


501) Earliest known cooperative credit union ‘Anyonya Sahakari Mandali’ was founded in which year?


502) All banks registered under the ___________ are considered co-operative banks.


503) Which bank has secured four awards for inclusive insurance in 2016 from Skoch Group?


504) Which of the following Grameen Bank has launched “Bank Sakhi” scheme to promote and popularize cashless transactions in rural areas?


505) Recently RBI came up guidelines to incorporate the Name of the Purchaser on the Face of the Demand Draft. These instructions are applicable on instruments issued on or after _____ ?


506) Within how many working days, the customer has to notify the bank regarding the unauthorised transaction so that there is zero liability of customer?


507) The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is related to citizens of which country?


508) Consider the following statements regarding Ombudsman Scheme for NBFC:
a) Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934 confers powers on RBI to notify such scheme
b) NBFCs having customer interface, with assets size of one billion rupees or above are eligible to be covered under the scheme
c) The scheme is initially being introduced at the four metro centers
d) All NBFCs are covered under the scheme
Choose the correct answer from the following options:


509) Which among the following does not have Ombudsman office for NBFC?


510) Under the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC, who is the appellate authority for handling the complaints?


511) Which among the following NBFC are not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC?


512) What is the maximum amount of award that can be passed by Ombudsman for NBFC?


513) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate exposure limit of a single lender to all borrowers at any point of time, across all P2Ps?


514) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate loan limit of a single borrower at any point of time, across all P2Ps?


515) Which agency regulates and supervises NBFCs?


516) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. NBFCs does not hold a banking license.
2. NBFC can issue Demand Drafts like banks.


517) Which of the above statements is/are correct?


518) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under _____


519) Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) engaged in the business of _____


520) Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) does not include _____


521) Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation(DICGC) is not available to depositors of _____


522) Which of the following can not accept Demand Deposit?


523) Which of the following do not form part of the payment and settlement system?


524) NBFC should be a company registered under _____ of the companies Act, 1956.


525) NBFCs should have a minimum net owned fund of _____


526) NBFCs whose asset size is of _____ or more as per last audited balance sheet are considered as systemically important NBFCs


527) NBFCs which deploys at least 75 per cent of its total assets in infrastructure loans is known as _____


528) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _____.


529) For a company to register as a NBFC it should have a minimum net owned fund of _____.


530) Any NBFC is is considered systemically important NBFC when its asset size is of Rs _____ or more.


531) Which of the following is true about NBFC?
(i) NBFC cannot accept demand deposits
(ii) NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself
(iii) deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available to depositors of NBFCs.


532) NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a minimum period of months?


533) NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a ma9ximum period of months?


534) What is the present ceiling limit of interest rate that NBFCs can offer ?


535) Identify the false statement


536) For working as a NBFC a company must get itself registers with _____.


537) Chit Fund companies are regulated under the Chit Fund Act, _____.


538) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _______


539) Which of the following activity is not permissible for NBFC?


540) A non-banking institution that has a principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions is known as?


541) When is an Financial activity considered as the principal business of any entity?


542) Which of the following test is used by RBI to determine whether or not a company is into financial business


543) Which of the following is false about NBFC?


544) What is the minimum Net Owned Funds required by NBFCs for registration with RBI?


545) NBFCs with asset size more than ___ are considered to be systemically important NBFCs


546) Core Investment Companies with asset size of less than _______ are exempted from registration with RBI.


547) Which of the following does not have any roles in regulation of NBFCs?


548) Reserve Capital is a part of:


549) Which of the following statements is true?


550) Authorised Capital of a Company is mentioned in :


551) In case of private placement of shares, the lock in period is :


552) In case of private placement of shares and company does not invite the general public for subscription of shares in that case, company instead of issuing prospectus :


553) In case of private placement of shares, to raise the amount of capital a company :


554) Shares issued by a company to its employees or directors in consideration of ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ are called


555) A Company may issue the shares


556) Public subscription of shares include


557) Which of the following will define, when appropriation of a certain number of shares is made to an applicant in response to his application?


558) Issue of shares at a price lower than its face value is called :


559) According to Companies Act, Minimum Subscription has been fixed at ................ of the issued amount.


560) One of the conditions, in addition to others, for allotment of shares is :


561) Persons who start a company are called ................


562) Minimum subscription amount of 90% is related to which share capital:


563) Share Application Account is in the nature of:


564) As per SEBI Guidelines, Application money should not be less than of the issue price of each share.


565) 4,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each were issued at 8% premium to the promoters of a company for their services. Which account will be debited?


566) If vendors are issued fully paid shares of Rs. 1,25,000 in consideration of net assets of Rs. 1,50,000, the balance of Rs.25,000 will be credited to :


567) Issue of shares at a price higher than its face value is called :


568) On issue of shares Premium is :


569) Maximum limit of Premium on shares is:


570) When a company issues shares at a premium, the amount of premium should be received by the company :


571) Amount of securities premium can be utilised for:


572) For what purpose securities premium reserve account cannot be utilized?


573) Premium on the issue of shares should be shown :


574) Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits to issue of shares at discount?


575) Equity shareholder is -


576) have the right to vote on any resolution placed before the company or general meeting.


577) Amount of capital stated in the Memorandum of Association as the share capital of the company is known as (1) Subscribed or Authorized Capital
(2) Paid-up or Subscribed Capital
(3) Nominal or Called-up Capital
(4) Nominal or Authorized Capital
The correct answer is


578) __________ refers to that part of the authorized capital which has actually been offered to the public for subscription


579) ….. refers to that part of the issued capital which has actually been subscribed by the public.


580) Public companies issue shares to public through document called -


581) __________ means the appropriation of a certain number of shares to an applicant who has applied shares in public issue by the board of directors in consultation with stock exchange.


582) Issuer company cannot make allotment of shares unless -


583) The minimum subscription is the
of the issued amount.


584) When face value of shares is less than issue price then shares are said to be issued at -


585) When shares are issued at a price less than the face value, they are said to be issued at -


586) As per the Companies Act, 2013 the companies cannot use the balance of securities premium for -


587) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, second instalment is called -


588) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, third instalment is called -


589) Premium on issue of shares must be treated as -


590) Premium on issue of shares must be credited to a separate account called -


591) Securities premium account must be shown separately on the liabilities side of the balance sheet in ….. under the heading …..


592) Which of the following type of security can be issued al discount as per Companies Act, 2013?1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


593) Which of the following Table of Schedule I to the Companies Act, 2013 contains the provisions relating to Calls- in-Advance & Calls-in-Arrears?


594) Amount received as calls-in-advance is a _____ of the company.


595) Amount due on calls made but not paid is known as -


596) If the number of shares issued for is more than the number of shares applied the shares are said to be


597) If the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares issued the shares are said to be


598) In case of oversubscription of shares each applicant receives the shares in some proportion, it is known as


599) If authorized by the ….., a company may receive from a shareholder the amount remaining unpaid on shares, even though the amount has not been called up which is known as calls-in-advance.


600) __________ paid on calls-in-advance.


601) As per Table F of Schedule I of the Companies Act, 2013, interest on calls in advance can be paid at _____ p.a


602) As per Table F of Schedule I to the Companies Act, 2013, interest on calls in arrear can be received at ….. p.a.


603) Interest on calls-in-advance is paid for the period from the -


604) Balance of interest on calls-in-arrear account is transferred to ….. at the end of the year.


605) Balance of interest on calls-on-advance account is transferred to the ….. at the end of the year.


606) A company may allot fully paid shares to promoters or any other party for the services rendered by them, share capital account is credited and ….. debited.


607) ….. may be said to be the compulsory termination of membership by way of penalty for non-payment of allotment and/or any call money


608) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


609) Which of the following security cannot be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?


610) Shares forfeited account is to be shown in the balance sheet by way of ….. to the paid up share capital on the liabilities side until the concerned shares are re-issued.


611) The forfeited shares may be re-issued -
(I) at par only
(II) at par or at premium only
(III) at par or at discount only
(IV) at par or at premium or at discount
The correct answer is -


612) When shares are issued at a price less than the face value, they are said to be issued at -


613) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, first instalment is called —


614) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, second instalment is called —


615) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, third instalment is called —


616) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, fourth instalment is called —


617) Preference shares are those which carry the preferential rights as to -


618) __________ will be entitled to receive arrears of their dividend.


619) Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits to issue of shares at discount?


620) Which of the following right may be given to preference shareholder if provided by Articles?


621) Which of the following type of security can be issued at discount as per Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


622) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below


623) Dividends are of profits.


624) A company limited by shares may, if authorized by its can issue preference shares which are or at the option of the company are liable to be redeemed


625) The preference shares can be redeemed


626) When preference shares are redeemed out of profits such profit must be -


627) Only preferences shares can
be redeemed.


628) If any premium is to be payable on redemption of preference share, such premium has to be provided -


629) Where preferences shares are redeemed out of profits, a sum equal to the nominal amount of the shares so redeemed must be transferred to -


630) Capital Redemption Reserve Account may be applied to issue -


631) No company limited by shares, issue any preference shares which is redeemable after the expiry of a period of _____ from the date of issue


632) The balance in capital redemption reserve is available for -


633) As per the Companies Act, 2013, preference shares which are issued by company engaged in infrastructure project can issue preference share which are redeemable after ____


634) A preference shares is one which enjoy a:


635) Unless otherwise stated, a preference share is always deemed to be -


636) As per the Companies Act, 2013 the companies cannot use the balance of Securities Premium for -


637) Which of the following can be utilized in redemption of preference share capital account?
1. Profits available for dividend
2. Capital Reserve
3. Dividend Equalization Fund
4. Development Rebate Reserve
5. Profit Prior to Incorporation
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


638) Statement I:
The main purpose to create CRR is to keep the capital structure of the company variable.
Statement II:
Another purpose to create CRR is to protect the interest of creditors, since CRR cannot be utilized for payment of dividend.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


639) To whom the bonus shares or rights shares can be issued?


640) Preference shares are entitled to a -


641) A preference shareholder can vote -


642) Redeemable Preference shares can be redeemed out of _____


643) Which of the following is correct journal entry for the 'Amount due to preference shares on redemption'?


644) A company used balance of ‘General Reserve’ and ‘P & L A/c’ for redemption of preference share capital amount. Which of the following is correct journal entry for this transaction?


645) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regard to redemption of Preference shares?


646) When Redeemable Preference shares are due for redemption, the entry passed is


647) Which of the following statements is FALSE?


648) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital redemption reserve account?


649) According to section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the amount in the Securities Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of:


650) Which of the following statements is TRUE?


651) Which of the following statements is incorrect?


652) Which of the following statements is correct?


653) For which one or more of the following reasons could a balance in the share premium be applied?(a) To issue bonus shares.
(b) For distribution to shareholders as dividend.
(c) To write down the value of assets, particularly when they are impaired.
(d) To write off expenses of and com¬mission on issuing the same shares
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


654) For which one or more of the following reasons does company law attempt to protect the balance in the securities Premium account by specifying the reasons for which alone it may be applied?(a) It is part of the capital actually con¬tributed by the shareholders.
(b) It should be protected from erosion as part of the creditor’s buffer.
(c) It is not realized in cash.
(d) It is immoral to allow a company to make profit by trading on its own shares.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


655) During the year a company used the balance it had in its securities premium account for all of the following purposes.
(a) Write off expenses of company for¬mation.
(b) Write off the cost of issuing bonus shares.
(c) Write off goodwill acquired when another business was bought as a going concern.
(d) Write off expenses of issuing shares.
Which one is not correct?


656) Where redeemable preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, an amount equivalents to the nominal value of the shares so redeemed must be transferred out of divisible profits to :


657) When preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, a transfer to
capital Redemption Reserve can be made out of:


658) When preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, which amount is
transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve u/s 80:


659) Which of the following statement is correct?


660) Irredeemable preference shares which were is sued by the company before the commencement of companies Amendment act 1988 must be redeemed within …….from th date of commencement of companies amendment act.1988.


661) Redeemable preference shares are those shares on which capital is to be paid back.


662) Which of these is not one of the conditions for redemption of redeeemable preference


663) Divisible profit include(s).


664) Divisible profit excludes


665) Redeemable preference share can be redeemed out of.


666) A preference share which carries the right of sharing in the surplus left after paying enquiry Dividend is called --


667) Which type of the following shares have the right to receive dividends unpaid in prior years, whenever earnings become adequate ?


668) The companies Act ,1956 prohibits the issue of any preference share which is


669) 5. Redeemable Preference shares are those shares on which Capital is to be paid back within Capital is to e paid back within the stipulated period of


670) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital
redemption reserve account?


671) Which of the following accounts can be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve
account


672) According to section 78 of the companies act, the amount in the Securities
Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of


673) Preference shares can be redeemed out of:


674) Which of the following statements is false?


675) Rs. 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each are issued at a discount of 10% to
redeem the preference shares, the proceeds of a fresh issue u/s 80 is


676) To redeem the preference shares, 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at RS. 11, Rs. 1,00,00010%. Pref. shares of RS. 10 each at RS. 9 and Rs. 1,00,000 9% Debentures of Rs. 100 each at Rs. 90 are issued the proceeds of fresh issue u/s 80 is ——


677) To redeem 15% Pref. Shares of Rs. 1,00,000 at 5% premium, Rs. 10,000 12%. Debentures of Rs. 100 each are issued at a discount of 10%. The amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve is:


678) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10% it has a General Reserve of RS. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to redeem preference shares out of divisible profits, the amount required to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account is –


679) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 6,500 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 5% for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve account is —


680) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 6,500 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 5% for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve account is —


681) X Ltd, decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has a General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 2,000 Equity Shares of Rs .10 each at 25% premium for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount to be transferred to capital Redemption account is —


682) X Ltd. to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 1,950 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at 30% premium for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve Account is ——


683) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs.70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is a decided to issue 3125 Equity Shares of Rs10 each at 20% discount for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account is —


684) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at 10% premium. It has a General reserve of Rs. 45,000 and Securities Premium of Rs. 1,000. If the new equity shares are to be issued at 25% premium, the minimum number of Equity shares of Rs. 10 each to be issued for the purpose of redemption is ——


685) On September 1, 2006, the company issued 12,000, 10%. Debenture having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2.5%. On Sept. 10, the company issued 25,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000, 6% preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend thereon. Bank balance as on August 31,2005 was Rs. 26,60,000
After effecting the above transactions, the bank balance as on September 30, 2006=?


686) Cash required to effect the above decision is –


687) The balance of Securities Premium Account after adjusting premium on
redemption of pref. shores is —


688) S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% Preference shares of Rs. 100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 15,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of Preference Shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account=?


689) According the section 78 of the Companies Act, the amount in the Securities
Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of


690) Which of the following statements is false?


691) Preference shares amounting to Rs. 2,00,000 are redeemed at a premium of 5%, by issue of shares amounting to Rs. 1,00,000 at a premium of 10%. The amount to be transferred to capital redemption reserve=?


692) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital
redemption reserve account?


693) A transfer to Capital Redemption Reserve is required u/s 80 when preference
shares are redeemed


694) The premium, if any payable on redemption must be provided for out of:


695) A preference share is one which enjoys a


696) Which of the following statement is false?


697) Following statements apply to Equity/Preference shareholders which one of them applies only to preference shareholders ?


698) As per the Companies Act ,1956 ,only preference shares, which are redeemable within _____can be issued


699) Unless otherwise stated , a Preference Shares is always deemed to be


700) A preference share which carries the right of sharing in the surplus left after paying enquiry Dividend is called --


701) Which type of the following shares have the right to receive dividends unpaid in prior years, whenever earnings become adequate ?


702) The companies Act ,1956 prohibits the issue of any preference share which is


703) Redeemable Preference shares are those shares on which Capital is to be paid back within Capital is to e paid back within the stipulated period of


704) As per Schedule VI of the companies Act 1956,under which of the following heads of ‘premium on issue of preference shares’ shown in the Balance Sheet of a company


705) How many 15% Preference shares of Rs. 100 each will be allotted to the Vendor ,if the shares are issued at a premium of 25% ?


706) How many Preference will be issued allotted to the Vendor ,if the shares are allotted at 10% discount ?


707) Preference shares can be redeemed --


708) Redemption of Preference share Capital can be done


709) Which of the following cannot be utilized for redemption of preference shares


710) On redemption of preference shares money cannot be arranged (for payment to shareholders) from


711) Which of the following condition should be satisfied to redeem the preference shares ?


712) Which of these is not one of the conditions for redemption of Redeemable Preference Share?


713) If preference shares are redeemed at premium such premium may be provided out of


714) Preference shares can be redeemed:


715) When face value of debentures is more than issue price then debentures are said to be issued at-


716) Premium on issue of debentures must be credited to a separate account called


717) Which of the following type of security can be issued at discount as per Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


718) The discount on issue of debentures must be treated as -


719) In case of oversubscription of debentures each applicant receives the debentures in some proportion, it is known as -


720) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


721) Which of the following security cannot be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?


722) If a company receives excess application money and the application money equal to debentures issued transferred to 5% Debentures A/c and application money received on excess debentures - some money is adjusted and against allotment and remaining was refunded, then which of the following entry is correct? _____,


723) Debenture holders are the ….. of the company.


724) Debenture holders


725) Debentures may be issued at -


726) Debenture interest is paid at a pre¬determined _____ while dividend on equity shares is paid at a


727) Interest on debentures is the _____ against profits.


728) In the company's balance sheet, debentures are shown under the head -


729) Debentures ….. converted into shares as per the terms of issue of debenture


730) Debentures ….. forfeited for non¬ payment of call moneys.


731) At the time of liquidation, debenture holders are paid-off ….. the shareholders are paid.


732) If the debentures are issued at a price higher than the nominal value of the debentures, the premium should be credited to -


733) Discount on issue of debentures is -


734) Debentures may be issued by a company for -


735) The company may allot debentures to the vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration, such issue of debentures to vendors is known as issue of debentures for -


736) If the value of debentures allotted to vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration is more than the agreed purchase price, the difference is credited to:


737) If the value of debentures allotted to vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration is less than the agreed purchase price, the difference is debited to -


738) When debentures are issued as collateral security which of the following accounting treatment can be adopted?


739) Which of the following statements is TRUE?


740) Premium on redemption of debentures account appearing in the balance sheet is


741) Which of the following statements is FALSE?


742) Which of the following statements is false?


743) Debenture interest -


744) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bearer Debentures?


745) When debentures are issued as collateral security, the final entry for recording the collateral debentures in the books is:


746) Which of the following statements is false?


747) Interest on debentures is calculated on:


748) Which of the following is true with regard to 10% Debentures issued at a discount of 20%?


749) Discount on issue of debentures is a:


750) When debentures are issued as collateral security against any loan then holder of such debentures is entitled to


751) When debentures are redeemable at different dates, the total amount of discount on issue of debentures should be written off:


752) Non convertible debentures refer to -


753) Interest accrued & due on debentures” is shown -


754) "Interest accrued & not due on debentures” is shown -


755) Tax deducted at source on interest on debenture is shown as -


756) Debenture premium cannot be used -


757) Debentures can be redeemed out of -


758) Debentures normally cannot be redeemed at -


759) If debentures are issued at discount and redeemed at premium


760) Profit on cancellation of debentures is transferred to -


761) As a sound accounting policy when debentures are redeemed amount equal to


762) Statement I:
Debentures can be converted into shares as per the terms of issue of debentures.
Statement II:
Shares cannot be converted into debentures in any circumstances.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


763) Arrange the priority of payment in case of liquidation of company:
I. Preference shares holders
II. Secured creditors
m. Equity shareholders
IV. Unsecured creditors
V. Debenture holders
Select the correct answer from the options given below -


764) Discount on issue of debentures, being a capital loss must be shown -


765) Sound business policy demands that discount on issue of debenture should be written off -


766) Which of the following is not a method of writing off discount on issue of debentures?


767) If the company acquires some assets from the vendor and instead of paying the vendor in cash, the company may allots debentures in payment of purchase consideration. In such case if the face value of debentures issued is more than value of assets acquired then difference will be -


768) Debentures Suspense Account -


769) Who of the following is not required to create Debenture Redemption Reserve?


770) Every company required to create DRR shall on or before the 30th day of April in each year, invest or deposit, as the case may be, a sum which shall not be less than _____, of the amount of its debentures maturing during the year ending on the 31st day of March of the next year


771) An other name of Debenture Redemp¬tion Fund Method is -


772) An other name of Debenture Redemp¬tion Fund Method is -


773) Debenture redemption fund investment account will appear on the assets side of the balance sheet under the head _____,while debenture redemption fund account will appear on the liabilities side under the head _____


774) Which of the following is correct journal entry for annual contribution to sinking fund created for redemption of debentures?


775) Loss on sale of Debenture Redemption Fund Investment account must be set-off
against -


776) If the purchase price for the debentures includes interest for the expired period, the quotation is said to be -


777) . If nothing is stated, purchase & sale of debentures, government securities should be taken to be on -


778) If debentures are issued at discount but redeemable at premium then -


779) Debenture issued at par but redeemable at price less than face value then -


780) Correct entry to transfer interest received on sinking fund investment is -


781) Debenture holders are


782) Debentures represent the


783) Zero Coupon Bonds are issued :


784) Interest payable on debentures is :


785) A debenture holder is entitled to :


786) On liquidation of company, principal amount of debentures is returned :


787) Which of the following statements is false?


788) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bearer Debentures?


789) Which of the following statements is false?


790) Which of the following statements is false :


791) The Principal amount of debentures will be repaid by the company either at the end of a specified period or by instalments during the life time of the company. Such types of debentures are called :


792) The debentures whose principal amount is not repayable by the company during its life time, but the payment is made only at the time of Liquidation of the company, such debentures are called :


793) Debenture Application Account is in the natutre of


794) Discount on issue of Debentures is in the nature of


795) Premium received on issue of debentures may be utilised for


796) Debenture holders are


797) Zero Coupon Bonds are issued :


798) Interest payable on debentures is :


799) A debenture holder is entitled to :


800) Which of the following statements is false?


801) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bearer Debentures?


802) Which of the following statements is false?


803) Which of the following statements is false :


804) Discount on the issue of Debentures should be shown on the


805) Debentures of a Company can be issued :


806) On issue of debentures as a collateral security, which account is credited?


807) Interest on debentures issued as a collateral security is paid on :


808) Loss on Issue of Debentures is written off:


809) When debentures are to be redeemed at premium an extra entry has to be made at the time of issue of debentures, which a/c should be credited in this entry?


810) Premium on Redemption of Debentures Account is :


811) ___________ allocates saving efficiently in an economy to ultimate users either for investment in real assets or for consumption


812) Which of the following is not a regulatory institutions in Indian financial system.


813) ___________ is regarded as a queen of Indian financial system.


814) ————— represent claims for the payment of a sum of money sometimes in the future and/or a periodic payment in the form of interest or dividend.


815) SEBI was established in —————.


816) RBI started functioning on —————.


817) National Housing bank is a fully owned subsidiary of —————.


818) ————— has the statutory powers to regulate and promote the Indian capital market.


819) Any company making a public issue of value of more than Rs. ———— is required to file a draft offer document with SEBI


820) ————— Committee was constituted by SEBI for deciding about derivatives trading.


821) RBI is the lender of last resort for —————.


822) The market regulator of Indian Capital Market is ……………


823) …………………… facilitate the transfer of funds from savers to the borrowers.


824) ……………………… market is a market for old issues.


825) Which of the following is a financial asset


826) Which of the following is a cash asset?


827) Govt. bond is a


828) Money market deals with ..................... instruments.


829) The market for extremely short period loan is called. ....................


830) ..................... acts as an intermediary between Govt. and money market


831) ................... are drawn by contractors on the Govt. departments for the goods supplied to them


832) The bill which doesn’t require acceptance is called. ....................


833) ..................... are an important instrument of short term borrowing by the Govt


834) ..................... is a market for bankers’ acceptances


835) Accommodation bills are also known as ..................... bills


836) Adhoc treasury bills are issued in favour of the ..................... only


837) ..................... are short term deposits of specific maturity similar to fixed deposits.


838) ..................... is an unsecured short term promissory note issued by creditworthy companies?


839) Discount and Finance House of India was set up in .....................


840) Discount and Finance House of India was set up in pursuance of the recommendations of .....................Committee


841) ..................... has been set up mainly to provide a secondary market in Govt. Securities


842) Right shares are offered to.....................


843) ..................... is the suitable method where small companies issue shares


844) ..................... is a process of admitting securities for trading on a recognised stock exchange.


845) ..................... is a preferential independent broker who deals in securities on his own behalf.


846) The facility to carry forward a transaction from one settlement period to another is known as ..................... transaction


847) The device adopted to make profit out of the differences in prices of a security in to different markets is called. ....................


848) The central depositary ..................... the security on behalf of the investors


849) ..................... of shares in the first step in the depository process


850) ..................... is the link between the depository and the owner


851) ..................... issues does not bring in any fresh capital


852) Prospectus is not issued in


853) An issuer need not file an offer document in case of


854) An issuer can launch an IPO within.....................


855) An issue of a minimum size of Rs. ..................... crore is a mega issue


856) Financial institutions are also known as ........................


857) ........................ is the first development financial institution in India.


858) Management Development Institute (MDI)was set up by ........................


859) IDBI was established in ........................


860) ........................ is an apex institution to coordinate, supplement and integrate the
activities of all existing specialised financial institutions


861) Technical consultancy Organisations were set up by........................


862) ICICI was set up in ........................


863) ........................ assists mainly to industrial undertakings in the private sector


864) LIC was established in........................


865) UTI was set up in the year ........................


866) ................known as Brettonwood twins


867) World bank is also known as........................


868) World bank was set up in ........................


869) IMF commenced financial operation on........................


870) Which of the following gives long term finance?


871) Which of the following is a fee based service


872) Find the odd one out


873) The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial service company is called


874) Mutual funds are very popular in


875) In India, the company which actually deals with the corpus of the mutual fund is called


876) The first bank in India to start factoring business is


877) An asset with a physical value is called


878) An asset which derives its value because of a contractual claim is


879) Gold is -----------asset


880) Cash is --------------asset


881) -------------is a whole sale market for short term debt instrument


882) Money lent in the inter-bank market for 15 days or more is called -----------


883) When money lent for more than a day but up to a fortnight is called


884) CBLO stands for


885) The NSDL established in


886) In a private placement the maximum number of investors shall not exceed


887) Merchant banks in India started in


888) Merchant banks concept in India introduced by


889) SENSEX is the index of


890) NIFTY is the index of


891) The first Indian equity index is


892) ............ is a product whose value is derived from the value of underlying asset


893) BOLT stands for


894) --------------is also known as “G.Secs”


895) .................. are negotiable instrument issued by an overseas depository


896) Perpetual bond is also known as


897) Zero Coupon Bond is also known as


898) Secured Premium Notes (SPN) always issued with...........


899) ................ bonds permit the bond holder to invest the interest income again in host bonds


900) ...............bonds are high risk and high yield bonds developed in USA


901) ESOP stands for


902) QIPs Stands for


903) What you mean by “STRIPS


904) Gilt Edged Securities are


905) In India, forfaiting services are offered by


906) The small investors’ gateway to enter into big companies is —————


907) Money Market mutual fund is also known as---------------


908) ————— fund invests in highly liquid securities like commercial paper.


909) The idea of providing factoring services in India was first thought by —————


910) The market for extremely short period loan is called


911) ---------- bills are drawn by contractors on the government departments for the goods supplied by them.


912) ---------- is also known as ‘Industrial Paper”


913) Demand bills are also known as


914) Usance bills are also known as


915) Which of the following are examples of Hundis in india


916) Bills drawn and accepted payable after three months are called


917) The market which helps commercial banks to maintain their SLR requirement is


918) Bill Market Scheme in India was introduced in the year


919) Adhoc T-bills are always issued in favour of--------


920) The certificate which evidences an unsecured corporate debt of short term maturity


921) Major players of Indian money market is


922) -------- is the suitable method where small companies issue shares


923) Zero interest bonds are always issued


924) -------- is a guarantee for marketability of shares


925) Which one of the following is /are not function of NIM


926) BOLT was introduced by BSE in the year


927) -------- is a permission to quote securities officially on the trading floor of stock exchange


928) The number of shares which are less than market lots are called


929) Rolling Settlement system was introduced by SEBI in the year


930) The facility to carry forward a transaction from one settlement period to another is called --------- transaction


931) The device adopted to make profit out of price differences in two different markets


932) A person appointed by a stock broker to assist to him in the business of securities trading at trading floor of stock exchanges is


933) ------------- is also known as Remisiers and Half-commission man


934) An order for the purchase of securities at a fixed price is known as


935) Speculator who neither buy nor sell securities in the market, but still trade on them are called


936) The process of holding the entire supply of a particular security with a view to dictating terms is called


937) ------------ market deals in unlisted securities


938) When purchases of securities are more than sales of securities, the market is called


939) When sales of securities are more than purchases of securities, the market is called


940) --------- is the charges paid by a bull speculator to the other party for obtaining carry over facility


941) . --------- is the amount paid by bear to facilitate him to renew a bargain until next settlement date


942) -------- is the process of selling securities without owning them


943) Bull speculators are also known as


944) Bear speculators are also known as


945) Another name of jobber is


946) Those who provides finance for carry forward transactions in securities is called


947) The speculator who observes very fast the trends and changes in market is


948) ------is the bear speculator who struggling to complete his commitments because of wrong foot


949) An option (right) to purchase shares in future at predetermined price is called


950) An option (right) to sell shares in future at predetermined price is called


951) ---------- refers to the process of creating an artificial condition in market in order to push price of particular shares


952) An attempt to gaining short term profit from the price difference or movements of securities are called


953) Companies (Amendment) bill-1999 restricts buy back of shares up to........... of the paid up capital


954) SIDBI is fully owned subsidiary of


955) “AMBI” stand for


956) In listed securities, “Group A shares” are also known as


957) In listed securities, “Group B shares” are also known as


958) Odd lot shares are coming under -------- of listed securities


959) ALBM (Automated Lending &Borrowing Mechanism) was introduced by


960) under public issue of shares, reservation for permanent employees


961) The conditions to be satisfied by a public company for issuing Right shares are specified in --------------of Companies Act.1956


962) ----------- is a method of cancellation of shares


963) Which of the following is / are method of Buy back of shares


964) Over the Counter Exchange of India commenced operation in the year


965) Members of the OTCEI are---------- only


966) The whole sale market segment for NSE is meant for


967) As per SEBI guidelines, a new company which has not completed 12 months commercial productions has to issue shares at -------


968) National Stock Exchange (NSE) established in the year


969) Method of trading in NSE is


970) Method of trading in OTCEI is


971) -------- are eligible to list in OTCEI


972) Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) mainly deals in


973) -------- of shares is the first step in depository process


974) In depository system, --------- is a link between depository and the owner.


975) “A central location for keeping securities on deposit” is


976) The group of shares which are not permitted for short selling are


977) --------- group includes shares of companies which have failed to comply with listing requirements


978) In listed scrips, --------- group includes small cap stocks.


979) Shares of well established and financially sound compnies, with very little investment risk and good history of earnings is known as


980) In a stock exchange where the ownership, management and trading are concentrated in a single group, it is called


981) In India, currently method of calculation of stock indexes is


982) Fully automated screen based trading system in NSE is known as


983) The Chief promoter of National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) is


984) The Chief promoter of Central Depository Services Limited CDSL) is


985) The third largest stock exchange in the world is


986) In the index “CNX Nifty”, C stands for


987) The dollar version of Index of BSE is


988) In BSE, T+2 rolling settlement began in the year


989) In settlement T+2, ‘T’ stands for


990) Which one of the following is an example of derivative?


991) The process in which illiquid assets are converted into marketable securities is known as


992) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest (SARFAESI) Act passed in the year


993) In security market, “ASBA” stands for


994) In financial circle, the name “Dalal Street” is used synonyms to.........


995) The name “Wall Street” is used to synonyms to..........


996) Credit rating indicates -------- of a company


997) Credit rating is only a / an..............


998) Which of the following is not a credit rating agency?


999) At present, how many Non-scheduled banks are functioning in India


1000) Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India (IICRA) is a


1001) --------- variety of mutual fund is known as “Nest Eggs”


1002) Generally mutual funds are of


1003) The corpus of funds and its duration is fixed in case of ------- fund


1004) The market performance of mutual fund can be judged on the basis of


1005) ----------- is the regulator of mutual funds in India


1006) ------ is the venture capital assistance at the stage where the project started to fetch profit but not reached in its full efficiency


1007) In ----------leasing, the risk of obsolescence is assumed by the lessee


1008) ----------- is a tripartite lease arrangement


1009) In hire purchase depreciation can be claimed by the


1010) A merchant bank can claim a charge ------- % as the commission for the whole issue


1011) Which of the following is not a quantitative credit control tool of RBI?


1012) Which of the following is a selective (qualitative) credit control method?


1013) Currency notes of rupee one and other lower subsidiary coins are issued by


1014) American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are issuing by


1015) ----------- is the process of converting security in electronic form into physical form


1016) ----------- is dealing in securities done by those who having access to price sensitive information.


1017) --------- is a calculated move with an expectation to reap huge profit from market fluctuations


1018) ---------- speculators are optimistic in nature


1019) ---------- speculators are Pessimistic in nature


1020) The scheme in which company can allot shares not more than 15% of the issue size, to the public in addition to the shares already offered- is called


1021) The merchant banker coordinating a public issue is called as


1022) -------- is a shortened form of prospectus


1023) -------- is an offer document is used in public issue made under book building method.


1024) In technical sense, short sellers (bears) will be “squeezed” through


1025) ---------- is known as ‘Traffic in securities’


1026) A system of security trade in which one is allowed to invest in excess of his financial capacity by borrowing funds


1027) Which of the following speculative transactions are unfair and prohibited?


1028) Which of the following is not a prohibited act in security market?


1029) ------- is undertaken for making a dishonest claim for tax deduction


1030) -------- means temporary halt of trade in stock exchanges whenever index moves upward or downward beyond the specified limits


1031) Unsecured debentures are also known as...........


1032) Non-voting shares were introduced by Companies (Amendment) bills in the year


1033) in the case of -------- bonds, the value is inversely related to short term interest rates.


1034) “D vs. P” system for government securities market means


1035) Non banking financial institutions (NBFIs) are registered under


1036) According to IFRS, the term financial asset includes


1037) Which of the following is /are example of primary or direct financial instrument


1038) Which of the following is /are example of Secondary or indirect financial instrument


1039) A Non Banking Financial Institution


1040) A Non Banking Financial Institution


1041) Kerala State Financial Enterprises ltd (KSFE) is an example of


1042) UTI, LIC etc are examples of


1043) SFC is an example of


1044) Which of the following is /are not regulatory institutions


1045) Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?


1046) Follow on Public Offer’ is also known as


1047) Follow on Public Offer’ is also known as


1048) “Uberrimae. Fidei” means


1049) ........... is the oldest insurance


1050) In.----------------, insurable interest is enough at the time of loss


1051) In. insurance, “Causa Proxima” means


1052) __________ is a financial service which pooling risks of people


1053) In India Insurance business are regulated by


1054) Except life insurance maximum term of other insurance is __________


1055) Central office of Life Insurance Corporation of India is located at


1056) There are........ associated companies of GIC


1057) Native Stock and Share Brokers Association” is the old name of............


1058) General insurance business nationalized in the year----------


1059) Principle of Indemnity does not apply to----------


1060) A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities


1061) In India Merchant banking along with management of public issues and loan syndication
covering activities like
1. Project counseling
2. Portfolio management
3. Investment counseling
4. Mergers and amalgamation of the corporate firms
5. Securities and exchange


1062) Formal merchant banking activity in India was originated in______.


1063) In India, merchant-banking activity was originated with the merchant banking division set
up by the __________.


1064) State Bank of India started merchant banking in ______ followed by ICICI in ______


1065) State Bank of India started merchant banking in ______ followed by ICICI in ______


1066) The early growth of merchant banking in the country is assigned to the ________.


1067) Developmental activities of merchant banking:


1068) Different enactments for raising funds from the capital market:
1. Companies Act
2. Income-Tax Act
3. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
4. Securities Contracts Act
5. Corporate laws and Regulations


1069) The term ‘Merchant Bank’ is used in:


1070) In India, merchant Banks operate in the form of divisions of India and foreign banks and
financial institution, Subsidiary companies established by1. SBI Capital Markets Ltd.
2. Can Bank Financial Services Ltd.
3. PNB Capital Services Ltd.
4. BOI Finance Ltd.
5. Indian Bank Merchant Banking Services Ltd.


1071) Banks implement the RBI’s _______ policies.


1072) State level financial institutions are:
1. IFCI
2. SFCs
3. SIDCs
4. IRBI
5. SIICs


1073) _____ is basically a savings and investment corporation.


1074) Identify the money market instruments:
1. Call Money Market
2. Treasury Bills
3. Commercial bills


1075) Secondary markets in treasury bills require involvement of ________ and _______


1076) Merchant bank is an organization thata. Underwrites securities for corporations


1077) The criteria for authorization of merchant bankers includes:
1. Professional qualification in finance, law or business management
2. Infrastructure like adequate office space, equipment and manpower
3. Employment of two persons who have the experience to conduct business of merchant
bankers
4. Capital adequacy
5. Past track record, experience, general expectation and fairness in all transaction


1078) The four categories of merchant bankers issued by SEBI:
1. First category i. Who act as an advisor or consultant to an issue
2. Secondary category ii. Those authorized to act as an underwriter, advisor.
3. Third category iii. Those authorized to act in the capacity of co-manager
4. Fourth category iv. Who carry on any activity of issue management


1079) Issue management is an important function of ______ and ______.


1080) In simple terms, the management of issues for raising funds through various types of
instruments by companies is known as:


1081) Companies raise funds for the purposes of:
1. Financing new projects
2. Expansion of existing units
3. Modernization & diversification of existing units
4. Organizing long term resources for working capital purposes


1082) Categories of securities issue:


1083) Private placement coversa


1084) Match the following:
1. Public issue i. When capital funds are raised through the issue of
prospects.
2. Rights issue
ii. When shares are issued to the existing shareholders of a
company
3. Private placement iii. When the issuing company sells securities directly to the
investors


1085) Equity funding is preferable especially when the project is________.


1086) Match the following:
1. Pre-Issue Activities i. Signing of MOU
2. Post-Issue Activities ii. Dispatch of share certificates
iii. Issue of closure iv. Finalization
of basis of allotment
v. Filing with ROC
vi. Advertisement


1087) The _______ has to manage the post-issue activities.


1088) It is a process by which a demand for the securities proposed to be issued by a body
corporate is elicited.


1089) Financial services through the network of elements such as ________, serve the needs of
individuals, institutions and Corporate


1090) ______ is regarded as the fourth element of the financial system


1091) Objectives of financial services:
1. Fund raising
2. Funds deployment
3. Specialized services
4. Regulation
5. Economic growth


1092) Chief characteristics of financial services:
1. Intangibility
2. Customer orientation
3. Inseparability
4. Dynamism


1093) Match the following:
1.Fund based activities i. Underwriting of/or investment in shares 2.
Non-fund based activities ii. Dealing in secondary market
iii. Arrangement of funds from financial institutions iv. Managing the capital
issues


1094) Factors affecting assigned ratings:


1095) Identify the benefits of credit-rating to investors:
1. Safeguard against bankruptcy
2. Lower cost of borrowing
3. Saving of resources
4. Reduction of cost in public issues
5. Credibility of issues
6. Wider audience for borrowing


1096) CRISIL has been promoted by ____ and _____.


1097) The term _____ is defined as a central location for keeping securities on deposit.


1098) The principal instruments of the organized money market –
1. The call money market
2. The repo market
3. The treasury bill market
4. The commercial bill market
5. The certificate of deposits market
6. The commercial papers market
7. The money market mutual funds


1099) Any change in flow of funds and the demand of them, is clearly reflected in –


1100) _______ operates in Inter-bank call money market.


1101) Lead merchant banker should advice the issuer to enter into ???????? with a particular
intermediary for the purpose of issue management


1102) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceed in case any issue of, issue size
200crore to 400crore.


1103) A merchant bank can help an organization specifically in promotional functions,
????????????????????.


1104) Role of merchant bankers????????.


1105) ?????????????? is a financial intermediary who helps to mobilize and transfer capital from those
who possess it to those who need it.


1106) .????????????? is a long term risk capital to finance high technology projects which involve risk
but at same time has strong potential for growth.


1107) ?????????????????act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund.


1108) The first bank to set up a separate merchant banking division in India.


1109) Which of the following is not a fee?based financial service?


1110) All merchant bankers must have minimum net worth of ???????????????.


1111) Find out odd one? Authorization criteria of merchant bankers.


1112) ????????????????? covers the entire range of services provided by a merchant banker.


1113) Functions of financial services exclude ??????????????????????.


1114) Financial service companies exclude ??????????????????????.


1115) Financial services offered financing risk project e.g. Risk capital scheme of I F C I venture
capital fund of I D F I etc. to provide ????????????????.


1116) Category 1 merchant bankers can act as .


1117) Merchant bankers are .


1118) Merchant banker shall not associate with any business other than that of the securities
market.


1119) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceeds in case any issue of , issue size less than Rs.50crore,number of MBs ?????????????????.


1120) The holders of which instrument are members of the company and have voting rights?


1121) The well established and well-organised market where the sale-purchase of different securities takes place according to certain laws, is known as


1122) In stock exchange operations, when the speculator buys the right to sell a certain number of shares on an agreed amount at a specified time it is known as


1123) Interest rate futures trading in India is available on


1124) Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments (less than ............. year to maturity) issued at a discount.


1125) Which of the following are an important source of information about companies for investors?


1126) The features of th^ commercial papers are


1127) An option which gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a specified price at some time in the future is called a r


1128) QFI is defined to means a person (.not resident in India), who is resident in a country that is compliant with which standards?


1129) The financial market for securities with maturities of less than one year is known as


1130) How are the market borrowings of State Government managed?


1131) Which of the following statement is correct about daily volumes in the call money market?


1132) Which of the following are the means of marketing new issues of securities?
1. By listing of securities
2. Through jobbers and brokers
3. By private placing of securities
4. Through privileged subscription
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes


1133) The comprehensive meaning of an efficient stock market is that it is market which


1134) Arrange the following institutions in chronology order.
1. SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India), 1988
2. Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)
3. EXIM Bank
4. National Stock Exchange Codes


1135) Consider the following statements.
1. Transfer and transmission of shares are the same thing.
2. ‘Stag is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be over subscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium.
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes


1136) Which one of the following best supports the theory that the stock exchange is a secondary market? In a stock exchange


1137) If in a year, the company does not have adequate profits, the dividend will not be payable in the case of which shares?


1138) Who are professionals who offer independent advice on financial matters to their clients and recommend suitable financial products or products that are traded and settled like financial products?


1139) Since, investors can diversify away their ............. risks, they have to be compensated only for ............. risk.


1140) SEBI regulations require that there should be atleast ............. trustees (or directors in the trustee company) in a mutual fund.


1141) Recognised stock exchange means a stock exchange which is for the time being recognised by


1142) The pay-in and pay-out dates for the settlement calendar is declared


1143) To operate in the derivative segment of NSE, the dealer/broker and sales persons are required to pass examination


1144) A January month Nifty futures contract will expire on the last ………. of January


1145) The F and O segment of NSE provides trading facilities for the following derivative instruments, except


1146) Verification and upload of client details has to be done on SEBI website every


1147) Who can nominate members on the governing body of a recognised stock exchange?


1148) NSE’s Certification in Financial Markets (NCFM) is a necessary qualification for becoming a trading member


1149) As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, no acquirer who has acquired 15% or more, but less than 55% of the shares of a company shall acquire additional shares of the percentage specified below unless a public announcement is made.


1150) Every listed company is required to submit to the stock exchange the shareholding pattern of the company on a


1151) Under the member constituent agreement, trading members are required to make the clients aware of which of the following?
1. Trading segment in which the trading member is admitted.
2. SEBI registration number.
3. Basic risks involved in trading on the exchange.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes


1152) Which of the following is maintained by NSE to make good investor claims, which may arise out of non-settlement of obligations by the trading member, who has been declared defaulter, in respect of trades executed on the exchange.


1153) Demutualisation of stock exchanges refers to


1154) Prospectus issued by a company is to be vetted and approved by the SEBI. This, however, does not mean that


1155) Consider the following statements.
1. Foreign institutional investors have been allowed to invest in mutual funds.
2. The main objective of SEBI is to protect the investors.
3. Private placement is the route, through which promoters’ contribution is mobilised by a public
company.
4. RBI lays down the guidelines governing the capital market operation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes


1156) SEBI, in recent times, has made it mandatory for listed companies to disclose to the public the number of ‘Encumbered Shares’. What do such shares mean?


1157) What is the maximum brokerage that can be charged by an NSE trading member for a deal in government securities for ? 20 million?


1158) Which of the following statement is true about the NSE MIBOR polling process?


1159) Which of the following statements is true?


1160) An investor owns one thousand shares of Reliance. Around budget time, he gets uncomfortable with the price movements. One contract on Reliance is equivalent to 100 shares. Which of the following will give him the hedge he desires?


1161) Any person or persons acting in concert, who
together own ............. or more of the open interest
in index derivatives are required to disclose the same to the clearing corporation


1162) Who under Section 13 of the SEBI Act, 1992, may make grants to the SEBI?


1163) The Central Government has powers to supersede the SEBI, if it is of the opinion that


1164) If the chairman is unable to attend any meeting of the SEBI then


1165) WTio have to compensate any loss occasioned to any investor or to the scheme and/or plan on account of non-compliance by the fund?


1166) Which of the following entities provide ‘Take out Finance’ to banks engaged in financing of infrastructure projects?


1167) Consider the following statements.
1. UTI is established by an Act of Parliament in 1964. So, UTI does not come under the SEBI regulations for mutual funds.
2. Mutual fund organisations can invest their mobilised funds abroad.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes


1168) The first development financial institution of India was


1169) The first development financial institution of India was


1170) The first development financial institution of India was


1171) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes


1172) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes


1173) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes


1174) IFCI is authorised to borrow from


1175) IFCI can accept deposits from the public, State Government and local authorities for a period of less than


1176) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.


1177) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.


1178) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.


1179) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.


1180) ............. acquired United Western Bank in a
rescue in 2006.


1181) Which one of the following is the main objective of Unit Trust of India?


1182) Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?


1183) Contribution towards Rural Infrastructure Development Fund is made by


1184) The IDBI underwriters and ............. the shares and debentures of industrial concern.


1185) Which one of the following statement is correct?


1186) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1187) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1188) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1189) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1190) The first Mutual Fund Scheme in India was introduced by


1191) In a mutual fund, the trust acts through ............. who are appointed by the sponsor.


1192) Public investment is also known as________.


1193) Using High Yield variety (HYV) seeds is associated with:


1194) The duration of 11th five year plan is:


1195) Target growth for sixth five year plan is :


1196) A second green revolution is needed to raise the growth rate of agriculture GDP to around


1197) Bureau of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) started its work on


1198) The term industrialization involves :-


1199) In terms of purchasing power parity, India ranks________.


1200) The Planning Commission was set up in_______.


1201) The principle task of planning commission is___________.


1202) Which of these is a not an objective of planning


1203) The first five year plan was presented to the parliament by:


1204) Five steel mills at Dhilai, Durgapur and Raurkela were established in which five year plan?


1205) Green revolution is also known as______________revolution


1206) State Electricity Board was formed under which plan:


1207) Three consecutive periods of drought were experienced in which plan?


1208) In terms of agriculture which of these is the most developed state?


1209) .___________sector is treated as the major source of savings.


1210) Which of these is not a linkage between agriculture and industrial sector?


1211) .___________sector occupies central place in the economy.


1212) Agriculture price commission was set up in_________.


1213) National Agricultural Policy was started in__________.


1214) Which of these is not a thrust area of Tenth Five Year Plan?


1215) Which of these is not a cause of low productivity?


1216) Land reforms does not include


1217) Green revolution was started in which year__________.


1218) .___________aims at integrating our national economy with that of the world.


1219) .___________is the process by which centre of gravity of the economy shifts from agriculture to industry.


1220) Which of these is an objective of industrial policy?


1221) As per IDRA, 1951, small scale industry is one which has investment upto________crore in plant and machinery excluding land and building.


1222) In case of enterprises engaged in rendering of services, a small enterprise is one where investment in__________is more than 10 lakhs but less than 2 crores


1223) The condition of persistent loss and erosion of net worth is known as:


1224) Which of these is not a cause of industrial sickness?


1225) .____________was set up for rehabilitation of sick units.


1226) Which of these is not a thrust area of Tenth Five Year Plan?


1227) Which of these is not a cause of low productivity?


1228) Land reforms does not include


1229) Green revolution was started in which year ...................


1230) ................... aims at integrating our national economy with that of the world.


1231) Which of these is an objective of industrial policy?


1232) As per IDRA, 1951, small scale industry is one which has investment upto ................... crore in plant and machinery excluding land and building.


1233) In case of enterprises engaged in rendering of services, a small enterprise is one where investment in ................... is more than 10 lakhs but less than 2 crores”.


1234) The condition of persistent loss an erosion of net worth is known as:


1235) Which of these is not a cause of industrial sickness?


1236) ................... was set up for rehabilitation of sick units.


1237) Public investment is also known as ...................


1238) Using High Yield Variety (HYV) seeds is associated with:


1239) The duration of 11th five year plan is:


1240) Target growth for sixth five year plan is:


1241) A second green revolution is needed to raise the growth rate of agriculture GP to around


1242) Bureau of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) started its work on


1243) The term industrialization involves:


1244) The largest proportion of work force in India is engaged in the:


1245) The highest literacy rate in India is observed in the state of


1246) A country experiences population explosion when it gets stuck for long in a stage of demographic transition in which:


1247) A country is said to be ready to enjoy demographic dividend when-


1248) Problem in urbanization:


1249) What was the urban population percentage in 1951?


1250) TRAI was set up by:


1251) NREGS stands for?


1252) In Indian economy, the principal means of transportation is


1253) Which of the following organizations looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development in India?


1254) Which industry employs the largest number of women in India?


1255) An economy is at the ‘take off stage on its path to development when it


1256) Which among the following treaties provided for a common currency for the member countries of European Community?


1257) Mixed economy means an economy where


1258) Mixed economy means an economy where


1259) Mixed economy means an economy where


1260) Mixed economy means an economy where


1261) Planning in India derives its objectives from:


1262) Economic Planning is a subject defined in which of the following lists:


1263) The contribution of agriculture to India’s economy is:


1264) India opted for ‘Mixed Economy’ in:


1265) An economy which does not have any relation with the rest of the world is known as


1266) In an economy, the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of


1267) One of the following is not a renewable source of energy


1268) Land reforms programme in India has aimed at


1269) In India, at present 100 percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is al'owed in:


1270) In which state or union territory is the literacy rate highest in the country?


1271) The fastest rate of growth in terms of income generated has been recorded in the past couple of decades, in the


1272) Poverty ratio in India has been falling. It implies that


1273) Find the odd one out among the following employment generation programmes:


1274) In the early stages, commercial banks were


1275) After independence, the Imperial Bank of India was nationalised and became known as


1276) UCO bank is a


1277) Which of the following is not the fund based business of commercial banks?


1278) Bank show provision for income tax under the head


1279) Which one of the following statement is corrrect?


1280) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1281) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is maintained by


1282) The only merger between nationalised banks was between New Bank of India and Punjab National Bank in


1283) Which bank was incorporated as one of the Public Sector Banks in India during 2004-05?


1284) All banking institutions are


1285) Credit creation is a ………. of a bank.


1286) Universal banking is the combination of commercial banking with


1287) Credit gaps can be eliminated by reducing


1288) Which of the following is not an instrument of credit control in the banking system?


1289) Which of the following is not a function of a Rural Bank?


1290) The commercial banks in India are governed by


1291) Bank rate is also known as


1292) When a drawer draws a cheque without keeping sufficient balance and if the cheque is bounced for insufficient funds, the drawer is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to ............... and/or a fine.


1293) Paid-up capital of a bank should not be less than the following percentage of subscribed capital.


1294) Nationalisation of banks aimed at all of the following except


1295) encouragement of a new class of entrepreneur


1296) The chief promoter of ‘Clearing Corporation’ is


1297) Bank deposit refers to


1298) Which one of the following statement is correct?


1299) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1300) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Corporative Banks are governed by the banking Regulations Act, 1951.
2. State Bank of India Act was enacted in the year 1955.
3. After nationalisation of 24 major commercial banks, they become the important instrument for advancement of rural banking.
4. NABARD was established on 12th July, 1992 with an initial capital of ?200 crore.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes


1301) Which of the following can be described as involving indirect finance?


1302) Nationalised banks have been permitted to offer their equity shares to the public to the extent of 49% of their capital as per amendments made in 1994 in


1303) Which of the following is not the liabilty of commercial banks?


1304) Which is the oldest bank in existence in India, originated in the Bank of Calcutta in June 1806, which almost immediately became the Bank of Bengal?


1305) Which of the following limits the power of credit creation by commercial banks?


1306) Consortium lending is a lending facility, defined by a single loan agreement, in which ...............
participate.


1307) Which bank has become the first foreign bank to open a branch in Israel’s diamond exchange?


1308) Which Indian PSU Bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?


1309) Which bank had its office in Anarkali Bazaar, Lahore when registered on 19th May, 1894 under Indian Companies Act?


1310) Which one of the following statement is correct?


1311) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Central Bank is usually control and quite often owned by the government of a country.
2. Export-Import Bank of India took over the export finance function of the IDBI.
3. Unit Bank has virtually one or two branches.
4. Citi Bank and ING Bank are universal banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes


1312) Which of the following statement is incorrect?


1313) Which one of the following statement is correct?


1314) RBI was established with a share capital of ? ...............


1315) Who is the custodian of monetary reserves in India?


1316) Who is the fiscal agent and advisor to government in monetary and financial matters in India?


1317) Before issuance of currency notes, RBI held ............... securities


1318) Which of the rate is not determined by RBI?


1319) Who is authorised to issue coins of smaller denomination in India?


1320) Tier II capital should not be more than ………. Of Tier I capital.


1321) Renewal charges for all advance accounts to be recovered on


1322) Renewal charges for all advance accounts to be recovered on


1323) Advance, which remain NPA upto a period of 12 months is called


1324) Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011, froze its lending to the power sector?


1325) FDI upto 49% in private banking sector of India is allowed through


1326) FDI beyond 49%, but upto 74% in private banking sector of India is allowed through


1327) The ………. advance is an advance where payment of interest and/or repayment of installment of principal remain unpaid for a period of two quarters or more.


1328) The minimum capital adequacy ratio currently fixed by RBI for banks is


1329) Non-performing advances means


1330) In regard to assigning risk weight to NPAs, which one of the following is incorrect?


1331) Loans upto ? 1 lakh against gold and silver ornaments will attract a risk weight of


1332) Revaluation reserves are considered as a
discount, while determining their value for inclusion in Tier II capital. What is that discount?


1333) Credit risk is defined as


1334) Unsecured exposure will attract the following provision


1335) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1336) Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?


1337) The increase in foreign investment limit in the banking sector to 74% includes portfolio investment.


1338) If all the banks in an economy are nationalised and converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits


1339) Under which pillar of RBI’s new capital adequacy framework (Basel-II guidelines), minimum 8% capital adequacy for credit risk, market risk and operational risk has been prescribed?


1340) Pillar-II of RBI’s new capital adequacy framework (Basel-II guidelines) prescribes that


1341) Which one of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?


1342) The methods used for computation of capital for credit risk under Basel-II are


1343) The idea behind a capital adequacy ratio is that banking risk should be borne by


1344) As a consortium leader, the Lead Bank would
1. coordinate with government office’s, banks and other
stakeholders.
2. undertake planning and formulation of annual
district credit plans through block and district consultative committee^.
3. help in synergising all efforts to fulfill plan priorities
and district specific requirements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes


1345) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. NPAs = [(Gross or Net NPAs)/Total advances] x 100
2. Net NPAs = Gross NPAs - Provision for NPA’s

3. LAK = Tier two capital + Tier three capital/Risk weighted assets
4. Capital fund has two tiers -Tier I or core capital Tier II
Codes


1346) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. NPAs = [(Gross or Net NPAs)/Total advances] x 100
2. Net NPAs = Gross NPAs - Provision for NPA’s

3. LAK = Tier two capital + Tier three capital/Risk weighted assets
4. Capital fund has two tiers -Tier I or core capital Tier II
Codes


1347) Consider the following statements.
1. In case of standard assets, provision for NPA must be 25% for all types of standard assets.
2. In case of sub-standard assets, provision for NPA must be 10% for all types of standard assets.
3. In case of doubtful assets, 100% provision is required for unsecured and secured advances.
4. In case of loss assets, 10% of unsecured and 100% of secured advance must be kept as provision for NPAs.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes


1348) Consider the following statements.
1. In case of standard assets, provision for NPA must be 25% for all types of standard assets.
2. In case of sub-standard assets, provision for NPA must be 10% for all types of standard assets.
3. In case of doubtful assets, 100% provision is required for unsecured and secured advances.
4. In case of loss assets, 10% of unsecured and 100% of secured advance must be kept as provision for NPAs.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes


1349) Lot of banks in India, these days are offering M-Banking facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’?


1350) For tele banking, banks required approval from RBI


1351) E- banking is synonymous with


1352) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) is managed by


1353) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?


1354) A card is basically a payment mechanism
which allows thfe holder of the card to make purchase without any immediate cash payment.


1355) ATM was first introduced in India by Hongkong and Singapore Banking Corporation (HSBC) in the year


1356) Which bank has introduced ‘Prepaid Card’ first?


1357) Who is the chairman of planning commission?


1358) The main object of Regional Rural Banks is to provide credit to


1359) Maximum contribution in India’s national income is from


1360) __________ provides crop storage facility in India


1361) Annual production of 250 million tones of food grains is a coal of


1362) Commercial Banks are the part of


1363) Objective of Regional Rural Bank is


1364) Which of the following is not a tenacy reforms:


1365) Which of the following type of land tenure systems were prevailing in India at the time of independence?


1366) Which of the following is the largest contributor of GDP in India?


1367) Who is responsible for collecting and presenting statistics in India?


1368) FCI (Food Corporation of India) is the Nodal agency for which of the following activites relating to food management in the country?


1369) Which of the following is the correct definition of a micro enterprise according to micro, small and medium Enterprise Development (MSMED) Act. 2006?


1370) The annual growth rate of the Industrial Sector has remained at _________ percent over the Eleventh Plan Period


1371) Tourism is an example of:


1372) Central bank can increase the cash reserve of the commercial banks by


1373) Central bank can increase the cash reserve of the commercial banks by


1374) The RBI can decrease the bank credit by


1375) Which of the following best describes the bank rate


1376) Which of the following is not the objectives of the monetary policy of the RBI?


1377) Interest rate policy is a part of


1378) Bank rate, implies the rate of interest


1379) Open market operation is a part of


1380) In the, context of monetary policy, what does the term open market operations refer to?


1381) Which of the following is not an instrument of monetary policy?


1382) In India, the three major objectives of economic policy are growth, social, justice and price stability. Which of the above objective can be pursued most effectively by the monetary authorities of the country?


1383) Commercial banks in India were nationalized in 1969 because


1384) Nationalization of banks aimed at all of the following except


1385) Rural bank branches constitute __________ % of total bank branched in India


1386) Population per bank in India is


1387) Interim of deposit mobilization __________ Leads other states.


1388) In terms of lending priority sectors like constitute about __________ of total banking lending.


1389) Which is the central bank of India?


1390) Commercial banks suffer from


1391) __________ refers to that portion of total deposits of a commercial bank, which it has to keep with RBI in the form of cash reserves.


1392) __________ controls affect indiscriminately all sectors of the economy


1393) During depression, it is advisable to


1394) Which of the following statements is correct ?


1395) Gross capital formation in India is very


1396) Who is the custodian of monetary reserves in India


1397) Who is called the "bank of issue


1398) Who is the rascal agent and adviser to government in monetary and financial matters in India?


1399) Who is the custodian of national reserves of international currency?


1400) The profitability ratio of bank has declined over the years due to


1401) Decrease in the reserve ratio leads to __________


1402) Which of the following period is considered as 'Plan Holiday' in India?


1403) Which of the following is an advantage of cooperative farming:


1404) The term that refers to disposal of public sector units equity in the market is:


1405) Under IRDA Act, 1951 which of the following was the requisite of becoming an Small Scale Industry (SSI)?


1406) Which of the following is secondary function of money?


1407) What will happen to the lending power of the bank if the repo rate decreases


1408) In India all commercial are regulated by:


1409) Which of the following measure is taken by Bank for credit creation?


1410) Which of the following lists primary function of money?


1411) Largest Commercial bank in India, in terms of deposits is:


1412) National Agriculture Insurance Scheme was implemented on


1413) Which is not a Kharif Crop ?


1414) The data of estimation of India's National income is issued by ?


1415) The concept of Economic Planning in India is derived from ?


1416) First five year plan in India was from


1417) Six Commercial banks were nationalised by the Government on


1418) The 14 major banks were nationalised by the Government on


1419) Which of the following is the first Private bank established based on the recommendations of the Narasimhan Committee?


1420) UTI Bank Ltd. was established in


1421) Industrial Financial Corporation of India was established in


1422) Lead Bank system was started in


1423) Lead Bank system was started on the recommendations of


1424) Regional Rural Development Banks were established on


1425) The Regional Rural Development Banks (RRDare established based on the recommendations of the


1426) Which of the following Committees were appointed by the Government for restructureing the Regional Rural Development Banks?


1427) What is the position of India by GDP (nominal) according to International Monetary Fund list, 2012


1428) Which one from below is one of the four cities where coins are produce


1429) Which bank is the first to introduce ATM in India


1430) Which sector is the largest source of employment in India


1431) In which year India adopted liberal and free-market principles


1432) Which country shares the highest percentage of Indian imports


1433) Which sector is the second largest source of employment in India


1434) When the first Economic Census was done in India


1435) Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India


1436) Who was the chairman of National Income Committe appointed by Government of India in 1949


1437) The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following


1438) Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently?


1439) As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another installment of its financial aid to India. Kfw is an organization/bank based in ____.


1440) Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIP’s?


1441) Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIP’s?


1442) Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIP’s?


1443) Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIP’s?


1444) Which of the following is NOT a financial term?


1445) In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as


1446) A consortium of commercial banks has joined hands to float a new company which will collect data related to frauds and security risks. Which of the following is the name of the company?


1447) As per newspaper reports the Bank of Japan, which is the Central Bank of the country, took special measures, first time in last six years, to contain the rise in the value of Yen. Why did Japan had to take this special measure which surprised many countries?(A) Japan was fearful that a rising currency would damage its export-led recovery plan.
(B) It was one of the measures taken by Japan to come out of its economic setback it suffered in the recent past.
(C) Since the US Dollar has become a Weak Global Currency, Japan wants the Yen to be recognized as the global currency in place of the US dollar.


1448) The Reserve Bank of India has set up a Working Group to review current operating procedure of monetary policy including ‘LAF’. What is fullform of ‘LAF’?


1449) Which of the following organizations/ agencies plays a major and crucial role to moderate & control inflation in a country?
(A) Central Bank of the country (B) Stock Markets of the country (C) Planning Commission of the country


1450) Many times we read about ‘Balance of Payment’ in economic literature. Which of the following statement(s) define the term correctly(A) It is a record of all transactions made between one particular country and all other countries.
(B) It is a record of all transactions made between the countries wherein the payment was made in a currency other than US Dollar.
(C) It is a record of all exports/ imports from /by a country and difference in amount of both in terms of payment in US dollars
?


1451) Many times we read about ‘Balance of Payment’ in economic literature. Which of the following statement(s) define the term correctly(A) It is a record of all transactions made between one particular country and all other countries.
(B) It is a record of all transactions made between the countries wherein the payment was made in a currency other than US Dollar.
(C) It is a record of all exports/ imports from /by a country and difference in amount of both in terms of payment in US dollars
?


1452) As per the existing policy the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of scheduled banks is fixed at a certain percentage of their NDTL. What is full form of NDTL?


1453) The Reserve Bank of India recently decided to review its monetary policy more frequently. This measure of the RBI will be called RBI’s - ------
(A) Monetary Measure
(B) Financial Market Measure
(C) Regulatory Measure


1454) Basel Committee on Banking Supervision” is also /or popularly known as ______


1455) Which of the following is /are the highlights of the Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14, which was reviewed by the Government recently?
(A) Government to increase exports up to US $ 200 billion this fiscal year.
(B) List of items allowed for duty-free imports reduced by 30%.
(C) Few towns like Barmer, Bhiwandi and Agra were declared towns of Export Excellence


1456) The Direct Tax Code which was revised recently will be implemented from which of the following dates?


1457) Government may reduce its budgetary deficit by various measures. Which of the following is NOT one such measure?


1458) Commercial Papers’ are issued by______


1459) ‘MAT’ provision in Income Tax stands for ___


1460) Many times we read about SWIFT in newspapers. What is its full from?


1461) In the world of commodity exchanges- the concept of “A standard contract to buy or sell a specified commodity at a certain date in future and at a market driven price”—is known as ____


1462) The foreign trade policy in India is announced by the


1463) Lending to Self Help Groups (SHGs) by Banks is known as ____


1464) Through which one of the following source(s) . Indian companies are allowed to access funds from abroad?(A) External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) only
(B) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds only
(C) Preference Shares only.


1465) While tackling the problem of inflation, which one of the following aspects is taken into consideration by the RBI?


1466) The basic characteristic of a capitalistic economy is


1467) Which of the following taxes is not a direct tax?


1468) UNDP prepares


1469) Fiscal policy refers to


1470) Public opinion gets an authoritative expression in a democracy through


1471) Which one of the following is not a determining factor of a country’s foreign policy?


1472) Who will act as the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee?


1473) Who was chosen unanimously as the President of India?


1474) The Constitution of India was passed by the Constitutent Assembly on


1475) The power to decide an election petition is vested in the


1476) The 1857 Mutiny failed mainly because


1477) The Story of ‘My Experiment with Truth” is the autobiography of


1478) Who among the following made the Ganapati festival very popular in Maharashtra?


1479) The Mughal ruler who built the Buland Darwaja was


1480) Diarchy in the provinces was introduced through theDiarchy or dual Government in the provinces of British India was introduced by Government of India Act (1919).


1481) Which of the following is the world’s largest desert?


1482) The rate of erosion in a stream is lowest where


1483) The name ‘Sahyadri’ is related to:


1484) Which of the following is not correctly matched?


1485) Tides in the sea have stored in them


1486) Delivery of developed foetus is scientifically called as


1487) Delivery of developed foetus is scientifically called as


1488) Thyroxine hormone is secreted by


1489) The digestive juice which has no enzyme is


1490) An essential feature of seed germination is the presence of


1491) Plants that grow on stones and rocks are


1492) Tactile hair is found in the body of


1493) The source of energy in the sun


1494) Banking of curves on road or railway track is done to provide


1495) ___________ is a type of application software used for communication.


1496) A floppy disk is


1497) MDI stands for


1498) People die in an atmosphere of carbon dioxide because


1499) Which of the following acts as photosensitizer during photosynthesis?


1500) What happens when bleaching powder is left exposed to air?


1501) Arsenic pollution leads to


1502) Which one of the following does not contribute to pollution?


1503) Which of the following are the two major components of dry air (by volume)?


1504) Which one of the following is not an example of Lotic ecosystem?


1505) Permissible noise level at industrial area during daytime is


1506) Benazir Bhutto, the former Pakistan Prime Minister was assassinated in


1507) Which of the following is correctly matched?
Research Institue Headquarters


1508) Who was affectionately known as the “Grand Old Man of India”?


1509) India test fired successfully its Agni-V surface-to-surface ICBM from Wheeler Island on


1510) Find the odd one out:


1511) The Tweleth Five Year Plan will be operative for the period


1512) The State with largest gap in the male and female literacy is


1513) “Better to regin in hell than serve in heaven.” Who said these words?


1514) Comprehensive Test Ban Treat (CTBT) is associated with the ban on which of
the following?


1515) The Pulitzer prize is associated with which of the following?


1516) Which of the following organizations/ institution set up the Regional Rural Banks?


1517) Initially, How many Regional Rural Banks were established with the capital share being 50% by the central government, 15% by the state government and 35% by the scheduled bank?


1518) In which of the following year Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in India?


1519) Recently, Government of India instructed Regional Rural Banks to Increase its branch network by how many percent every year?


1520) We Know initially five Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were set up in India in the year 1975 and each RRB was sponsored by a nationalized bank, Which one of the following nationalized banks was not a part of this?


1521) Which of the following Organization refinance Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)?


1522) At present in India How Many Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are there?


1523) What was the main objective behind the setting up of Regional Rural Banks in India?


1524) On October 2 1975 five Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established by the Government of India with a goal to help what type of economy?


1525) Which of the following is the principal owner of a Regional Rural Bank (RRB)?


1526) Regional Rural Banks


1527) Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India is aimed at developing rural Infrastructure?


1528) As per the newspaper reports, the RBI is planning to introduce
What are the benefits of "Plastic Notes"?(A) Their Shelf life will be longer
(B) It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fradulent practices.
(C) Printing will be cheaper


1529) 'Sub-Prime Lending' is a term applied to the loans made to __________


1530) The SBI recently has cut NEFT and RTGS charges by up to 75%. All the new charges for the services will attract the GST rate of


1531) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) committee is headed by


1532) Which of the following is the "informal route" of credit in the financial sector?


1533) What is the term 'Underwriting' means frequently used in the financial sector?


1534) What is the maximum stake that the Govt. of India has in any Public Sector Bank currently?


1535) Many times we come across a term in the field of banking operation which reads 'ECS'. What is the full form of the same?


1536) . is based on the principle of self-help through mutual help, abolition of
profits and service above self h


1537) In form of business organization profit earning is the
fundamental motive.


1538) In each works for all and all work for each.


1539) In the state is supreme, while in the individual freedom
occupies the front position.


1540) ……… pre-supposes the dominance of the State, whereas the co¬
operative movement does not accept State interference


1541) The principles of ‘Voluntary Association’ and Democratic Management’ are the
guidelines for


1542) International Cooperative Alliance was founded by the International Cooperative
Congress held in London in


1543) The is the Chief Executive Officer of the ICA.


1544) The presides over the General assembly and Board of ICA.


1545) The presides over the General assembly and Board of ICA.


1546) The presides over the General assembly and Board of ICA.


1547) The presides over the General assembly and Board of ICA.


1548) The ICA has member organizations around the world from
different countries as on 26th March 2013.


1549) What does ‘OM’ indicate as an activity in the ‘Activity Log’ screen in the NEAT system?


1550) The clients introduced by an authorized person to a trading member, would be required to deliver securities and make payments directly in the trade name of the trading member. True or False?


1551) At the end of the trade cycle, the trades are to
determine the obligations of the trading members to deliver securities/funds as per settlement schedule.


1552) is a volume related order condition.


1553) Equity shares cannot be issued for the purpose of:


1554) A Company may issue


1555) A company cannot issue


1556) To whom dividend is given at a fixed rate in a company?


1557) Preference shareholders have


1558) The shares on which there is no any pre-fixed rate of dividend is decided, but the rate of dividend is fluctuating every year according to the availability of profits, such share are called :


1559) Preference shares, in case the holders of these have a right to convert their preference shares into equity shares at their option according to the terms of issue, such shares are called :


1560) A preference share which does not carry the right of sharing in surplus profits is called


1561) Which shareholders have a right to receive the arrears of dividend from future profits


1562) Which shareholders are returned their capital after some specified time


1563) The following statements apply to equity/preference shareholders. Which one of them applies only to preference sharehoders?


1564) Unless otherwise stated, a preference share is always deemed to be :


1565) Nominal Share Capital is ................


1566) The portion of the capital which can be called-up only on the winding up of the Company is called ................


1567) Capital included in the Total of Balance Sheet of a Company is called :


1568) ................ is transferred to Capital Reserve.


1569) Reserve Capital is also known by :


1570) Reserve Capital is


1571) In the Balance Sheet of a company, under the heading share capital, at the last is shown


 

Practice Test: